A nurse is teaching a client who has genital herpes about the physiological effects of the infection. Which of the following statements by the client indicates that the teaching has been effective?
"The medication will decrease manifestations but not cure the infection."
"I need to take all the antibiotics, as prescribed, to treat the infection."
"If I don't have any lesions, I can't transmit the infection to my partner."
"Once I finish the medication, my partner is not at risk for getting the infection."
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason:
This statement is correct. Medications for genital herpes, such as antiviral drugs, can help decrease the severity and frequency of symptoms but do not cure the infection. The herpes simplex virus remains in the body and can cause recurrent outbreaks.
Choice B reason:
This statement is incorrect and indicates a misunderstanding. Genital herpes is caused by the herpes simplex virus and cannot be treated with antibiotics, which are effective only against bacterial infections. Antiviral medications are used to treat viral infections like genital herpes.
Choice C reason:
This statement is incorrect. Genital herpes can be transmitted to a partner even when lesions are not present. The virus can be shed from the skin even without visible symptoms, a process known as asymptomatic viral shedding.
Choice D reason:
This statement is incorrect. Even after finishing a course of medication, the risk of transmitting genital herpes to a partner remains because the virus persists in the body. Safe sex practices, including the use of condoms, can help reduce the risk of transmission.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason:
The inability to abduct the arm at the shoulder is a classic sign of a rotator cuff injury. The rotator cuff is responsible for stabilizing the shoulder joint and aiding in various movements, including abduction. When there is a tear or significant weakness in the rotator cuff muscles, especially the supraspinatus muscle, the patient may be unable to lift the arm away from the body or may experience pain while doing so.
Choice B reason:
A negative drop arm test would actually indicate that there is no rotator cuff injury. The drop arm test is performed by asking the patient to fully abduct the arm to 90 degrees and then slowly lower it. If the patient can control the motion and lower the arm smoothly, the test is negative. A positive drop arm test, where the patient cannot control the descent of the arm, would suggest a rotator cuff tear.
Choice C reason:
While an alteration in the contour of the joint may indicate some form of shoulder pathology, it is not specific to a rotator cuff injury. Changes in the contour could be due to various conditions, including dislocation, arthritis, or other musculoskeletal disorders.
Choice D reason:
A positive Tinel's sign is used to diagnose nerve compression or nerve damage, not rotator cuff injuries. It is performed by tapping over the course of a nerve to elicit a tingling sensation or pain in the distribution of the nerve. This sign is commonly associated with conditions like carpal tunnel syndrome.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Purulent drainage at the intravenous site access site would indicate a more severe infection, possibly grade 3 or 4 on the Infusion Nurses Society's phlebitis scale. This would be associated with more advanced symptoms such as pus formation, which is not characteristic of grade 1 phlebitis.
Choice B reason:
Redness at the intravenous access site with pain is indicative of grade 1 phlebitis according to the Infusion Nurses Society's phlebitis scale. This grade is characterized by erythema and possible pain at the site of the IV insertion, without more severe symptoms such as swelling or streak formation.
Choice C reason:
Red streaks on the affected extremity suggest a progression of the inflammatory response, potentially indicating a higher grade of phlebitis, such as grade 2 or 3. This symptom suggests that the inflammation is spreading along the vein, which is more serious than grade 1 phlebitis.
Choice D reason:
A palpable venous cord in the affected extremity would also suggest a more severe form of phlebitis, likely grade 3. This occurs when a thrombus forms along with inflammation of the vein, leading to a palpable cord-like structure.
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