A nurse is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of genital herpes. Which of the following statements by the client indicates the need for further teaching?
Transmission of the disease will not occur when my lesions are gone.
The use of condoms will reduce the risk of transmission.
Antiviral medications will not cure the infection.
Abstaining from sexual activity reduces the risk of transmission of the disease.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Transmission of the disease will not occur when my lesions are gone: This is incorrect. Genital herpes can still be transmitted even when lesions are not present, due to asymptomatic viral shedding.
B. The use of condoms will reduce the risk of transmission: This is correct. Condoms can reduce the risk of transmission but do not completely eliminate it, as herpes can be transmitted through skin-to-skin contact not covered by the condom.
C. Antiviral medications will not cure the infection: This is correct. Antiviral medications help manage symptoms and reduce the frequency of outbreaks but do not cure herpes.
D. Abstaining from sexual activity reduces the risk of transmission of the disease: This is correct. Abstaining from sexual activity during outbreaks or when symptoms are present reduces the risk of spreading the virus.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Hormone therapy decreases the risk of cardiovascular events: This is incorrect. Hormone therapy can actually increase the risk of cardiovascular events, including heart disease and stroke.
B. Hormone therapy may prevent osteoporotic fractures: This is correct. Hormone therapy can help maintain bone density and reduce the risk of osteoporotic fractures in women undergoing menopause.
C. Hormone therapy should be taken in doses throughout the day: This is incorrect. Hormone therapy is usually taken in a single daily dose or as directed by a healthcare provider, not throughout the day.
D. If a dose is missed, then the next dose should be doubled: This is incorrect. Missing a dose of hormone therapy should be managed according to the provider's instructions, which typically do not involve doubling the next dose.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. A 28-year-old client who has a history of pelvic inflammatory disease: This is incorrect. While a history of pelvic inflammatory disease does not necessarily contraindicate oral contraceptive use, it should be assessed for any other potential complications or contraindications.
B. A 26-year-old client who is mobile post appendectomy: This is incorrect. Recent surgery, such as an appendectomy, is not a contraindication for oral contraceptives, provided the client is otherwise healthy.
C. A 38-year-old client who reports smoking one pack of cigarettes every day: This is correct. Smoking, especially in women over 35, is a contraindication for oral contraceptives due to the increased risk of cardiovascular events such as thrombosis.
D. A 32-year-old client who has fibrocystic breast disease: This is incorrect. Fibrocystic breast disease does not contraindicate the use of oral contraceptives.
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