A nurse is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of genital herpes. Which of the following statements by the client indicates the need for further teaching?
Transmission of the disease will not occur when my lesions are gone.
The use of condoms will reduce the risk of transmission.
Antiviral medications will not cure the infection.
Abstaining from sexual activity reduces the risk of transmission of the disease.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Transmission of the disease will not occur when my lesions are gone: This is incorrect. Genital herpes can still be transmitted even when lesions are not present, due to asymptomatic viral shedding.
B. The use of condoms will reduce the risk of transmission: This is correct. Condoms can reduce the risk of transmission but do not completely eliminate it, as herpes can be transmitted through skin-to-skin contact not covered by the condom.
C. Antiviral medications will not cure the infection: This is correct. Antiviral medications help manage symptoms and reduce the frequency of outbreaks but do not cure herpes.
D. Abstaining from sexual activity reduces the risk of transmission of the disease: This is correct. Abstaining from sexual activity during outbreaks or when symptoms are present reduces the risk of spreading the virus.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Initiate intravenous (IV) access for fluid replacement. This is important for managing shock or significant blood loss, but it is not the first priority in managing severe bleeding.
B. Place the client's arm in a dependent position. This would not be appropriate for severe bleeding and does not control hemorrhage effectively.
C. Apply pressure directly to the wound. This is correct. Direct pressure is the immediate and essential step to control bleeding in a severe wound. It helps to stabilize the clot and reduce blood loss.
D. Apply a tourniquet just below the level of the shoulder. This is not the first intervention. A tourniquet is used if direct pressure does not control severe bleeding and should be applied above the wound, not below.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Extreme abdominal pain with intercourse: This is less specific for endometrial cancer and more indicative of conditions such as pelvic inflammatory disease or endometriosis.
B. Postmenopausal bleeding: This is correct. Postmenopausal bleeding is a common symptom of endometrial cancer and warrants further evaluation.
C. Decreased white blood cell count: This is incorrect. Endometrial cancer does not typically present with a decreased white blood cell count; it may present with normal or elevated levels depending on the stage and presence of infection.
D. Bilateral swelling on the posterior of the vulva: This is incorrect. Swelling of the vulva is not characteristic of endometrial cancer but may be associated with other gynecological issues.
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