A nurse is performing triage for a group of clients following a mass casualty incident (MCI). Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to care for first?
A client who has an open upper extremity fracture
A client experiencing a tension pneumothorax
A client who has full-thickness burns over 85% of their body
A client who has agonal respirations
The Correct Answer is B
A. A client who has an open upper extremity fracture: While this is a serious injury, it is less critical compared to a tension pneumothorax in a triage setting.
B. A client experiencing a tension pneumothorax: This is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention to relieve pressure on the lungs and restore adequate breathing.
C. A client who has full-thickness burns over 85% of their body: This is a severe condition with a high mortality risk, but in a mass casualty situation, a tension pneumothorax is prioritized for immediate care.
D. A client who has agonal respirations: Agonal respirations indicate severe distress, but the immediate need for intervention is to address conditions that can rapidly compromise life, such as a tension pneumothorax.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Hormone therapy decreases the risk of cardiovascular events: This is incorrect. Hormone therapy can actually increase the risk of cardiovascular events, including heart disease and stroke.
B. Hormone therapy may prevent osteoporotic fractures: This is correct. Hormone therapy can help maintain bone density and reduce the risk of osteoporotic fractures in women undergoing menopause.
C. Hormone therapy should be taken in doses throughout the day: This is incorrect. Hormone therapy is usually taken in a single daily dose or as directed by a healthcare provider, not throughout the day.
D. If a dose is missed, then the next dose should be doubled: This is incorrect. Missing a dose of hormone therapy should be managed according to the provider's instructions, which typically do not involve doubling the next dose.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. A history of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID): While PID can cause pelvic pain, it is not specifically indicative of endometriosis. Endometriosis is a distinct condition with its own set of symptoms.
B. Abdominal bloating starting several days before menses: This symptom can occur with endometriosis, but it is not as specific as other symptoms.
C. Dysmenorrhea that is unresponsive to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs): Endometriosis often presents with severe dysmenorrhea that does not respond well to NSAIDs. This is a classic symptom of endometriosis.
D. An atypical Papanicolaou (Pap) smear at her last clinic visit: An atypical Pap smear is more related to cervical abnormalities and is not a specific finding for endometriosis.
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