A client with multiple injuries to the head, chest, and abdomen has had their airway stabilized and is breathing on their own. Which symptom would lead the nurse to suspect internal hemorrhaging even when the nurse does not see any bleeding?
Increased sweating
Increased redness at the site
Increased abdominal distention
Increased blood pressure
The Correct Answer is C
A. Increased sweating: This is incorrect. Increased sweating is not typically indicative of internal hemorrhaging. It can be associated with various conditions but is not a specific sign of internal bleeding.
B. Increased redness at the site: This is incorrect. Increased redness would more likely be associated with localized infection or inflammation rather than internal hemorrhaging.
C. Increased abdominal distention: This is correct. Increased abdominal distention can be a sign of internal hemorrhaging, particularly if blood accumulates in the abdominal cavity (hemoperitoneum), leading to abdominal swelling and discomfort.
D. Increased blood pressure: This is incorrect. Internal hemorrhaging often leads to hypotension rather than increased blood pressure, as blood volume decreases and the body attempts to compensate.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Administer pain medication: Pain management is not the primary intervention for exposure to anthrax; the focus should be on addressing the disease directly.
B. Administer antibiotic therapy: This is correct. Post-exposure prophylaxis with antibiotics is crucial in preventing the development of anthrax, especially after exposure to spores.
C. Administer an antiviral medication: This is incorrect. Anthrax is caused by bacteria, not viruses, so antiviral medications are not effective.
D. Administer an antitoxin: While antitoxins are used in treating symptomatic anthrax, the immediate and appropriate action for exposure is to start antibiotic therapy.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. A 28-year-old client who has a history of pelvic inflammatory disease: This is incorrect. While a history of pelvic inflammatory disease does not necessarily contraindicate oral contraceptive use, it should be assessed for any other potential complications or contraindications.
B. A 26-year-old client who is mobile post appendectomy: This is incorrect. Recent surgery, such as an appendectomy, is not a contraindication for oral contraceptives, provided the client is otherwise healthy.
C. A 38-year-old client who reports smoking one pack of cigarettes every day: This is correct. Smoking, especially in women over 35, is a contraindication for oral contraceptives due to the increased risk of cardiovascular events such as thrombosis.
D. A 32-year-old client who has fibrocystic breast disease: This is incorrect. Fibrocystic breast disease does not contraindicate the use of oral contraceptives.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.