A client has been diagnosed with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). The nurse should encourage what health promotion activity to address the client's hormone imbalance and infertility?

Strict adherence to oral contraceptive use is necessary to maintain hormonal balance.

Surgical removal of ovarian cysts is the primary treatment for PCOS.

PCOS cannot be managed, and no treatment options are available.

Weight loss and lifestyle modifications can help improve PCOS symptoms.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Strict adherence to oral contraceptive use is necessary to maintain hormonal balance: This is incorrect. Oral contraceptives can help manage symptoms of PCOS by regulating menstrual cycles and reducing androgen levels, but they are not the only solution. Lifestyle modifications and weight loss can also significantly impact hormonal balance.
B. Surgical removal of ovarian cysts is the primary treatment for PCOS: This is incorrect. Surgery is not the primary treatment for PCOS. Management typically focuses on lifestyle changes and medications rather than surgical intervention.
C. PCOS cannot be managed, and no treatment options are available: This is incorrect. PCOS can be managed with a combination of lifestyle changes, medications, and, in some cases, surgical options.
D. Weight loss and lifestyle modifications can help improve PCOS symptoms: This is correct. Weight loss and lifestyle changes are fundamental in managing PCOS symptoms, as they can help improve insulin sensitivity and reduce androgen levels, which can alleviate symptoms and improve fertility.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. A history of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID): While PID can cause pelvic pain, it is not specifically indicative of endometriosis. Endometriosis is a distinct condition with its own set of symptoms.
B. Abdominal bloating starting several days before menses: This symptom can occur with endometriosis, but it is not as specific as other symptoms.
C. Dysmenorrhea that is unresponsive to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs): Endometriosis often presents with severe dysmenorrhea that does not respond well to NSAIDs. This is a classic symptom of endometriosis.
D. An atypical Papanicolaou (Pap) smear at her last clinic visit: An atypical Pap smear is more related to cervical abnormalities and is not a specific finding for endometriosis.

A. Administer pain medication. B. Administer antibiotic therapy. C. Administer an antiviral medication. D. Administer an antitoxin.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Administer pain medication: Pain management is not the primary intervention for exposure to anthrax; the focus should be on addressing the disease directly.
B. Administer antibiotic therapy: This is correct. Post-exposure prophylaxis with antibiotics is crucial in preventing the development of anthrax, especially after exposure to spores.
C. Administer an antiviral medication: This is incorrect. Anthrax is caused by bacteria, not viruses, so antiviral medications are not effective.
D. Administer an antitoxin: While antitoxins are used in treating symptomatic anthrax, the immediate and appropriate action for exposure is to start antibiotic therapy.

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A client has been diagnosed with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). The nurse should encourage what health promotion activity to address the client's hormone imbalance and infertility?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse in a clinic is interviewing a client who has a possible diagnosis of endometriosis. Which of the following findings in the client's history should the nurse recognize as consistent with a diagnosis of endometriosis?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is working with an emergency response team in caring for a group of people who may have been exposed to anthrax while doing farm work. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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