A client has been diagnosed with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). The nurse should encourage what health promotion activity to address the client's hormone imbalance and infertility?
Strict adherence to oral contraceptive use is necessary to maintain hormonal balance.
Surgical removal of ovarian cysts is the primary treatment for PCOS.
PCOS cannot be managed, and no treatment options are available.
Weight loss and lifestyle modifications can help improve PCOS symptoms.
The Correct Answer is D
A. Strict adherence to oral contraceptive use is necessary to maintain hormonal balance: This is incorrect. Oral contraceptives can help manage symptoms of PCOS by regulating menstrual cycles and reducing androgen levels, but they are not the only solution. Lifestyle modifications and weight loss can also significantly impact hormonal balance.
B. Surgical removal of ovarian cysts is the primary treatment for PCOS: This is incorrect. Surgery is not the primary treatment for PCOS. Management typically focuses on lifestyle changes and medications rather than surgical intervention.
C. PCOS cannot be managed, and no treatment options are available: This is incorrect. PCOS can be managed with a combination of lifestyle changes, medications, and, in some cases, surgical options.
D. Weight loss and lifestyle modifications can help improve PCOS symptoms: This is correct. Weight loss and lifestyle changes are fundamental in managing PCOS symptoms, as they can help improve insulin sensitivity and reduce androgen levels, which can alleviate symptoms and improve fertility.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Administer pain medication: Pain management is not the primary intervention for exposure to anthrax; the focus should be on addressing the disease directly.
B. Administer antibiotic therapy: This is correct. Post-exposure prophylaxis with antibiotics is crucial in preventing the development of anthrax, especially after exposure to spores.
C. Administer an antiviral medication: This is incorrect. Anthrax is caused by bacteria, not viruses, so antiviral medications are not effective.
D. Administer an antitoxin: While antitoxins are used in treating symptomatic anthrax, the immediate and appropriate action for exposure is to start antibiotic therapy.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. A client who has acute tonsillitis, is drooling, and has difficulty swallowing: This client is likely experiencing severe swelling or an airway obstruction, which requires immediate attention to ensure the airway is not compromised.
B. A client who sustained a deep laceration to their leg and is complaining of dizziness and weakness: While this client has concerning symptoms, airway compromise is prioritized in triage.
C. A client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) with a pulse oximetry reading of 88%: This client is hypoxic and requires prompt intervention, but airway issues take precedence.
D. A client who has lower left abdominal pain and bloody stools: This client may have a serious condition but does not require as immediate intervention as a compromised airway.
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