A nurse is working with an emergency response team in caring for a group of people who may have been exposed to anthrax while doing farm work. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
Administer pain medication.
Administer antibiotic therapy.
Administer an antiviral medication.
Administer an antitoxin.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Administer pain medication: Pain management is not the primary intervention for exposure to anthrax; the focus should be on addressing the disease directly.
B. Administer antibiotic therapy: This is correct. Post-exposure prophylaxis with antibiotics is crucial in preventing the development of anthrax, especially after exposure to spores.
C. Administer an antiviral medication: This is incorrect. Anthrax is caused by bacteria, not viruses, so antiviral medications are not effective.
D. Administer an antitoxin: While antitoxins are used in treating symptomatic anthrax, the immediate and appropriate action for exposure is to start antibiotic therapy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["56"]
Explanation
To calculate the infusion rate, we'll use the following formula:
Infusion rate (gtt/min) = (Volume to be infused (mL) / Time (min)) Drop factor (gtt/mL)
First, calculate the total time in minutes:
- 3 hours 60 minutes/hour = 180 minutes
Then, calculate the volume per minute:
- 500 mL / 180 minutes = 2.78 mL/min
Finally, multiply the volume per minute by the drop factor:
- 2.78 mL/min 20 gtt/mL = 55.6 gtt/min
Therefore, the nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver 56 gtt/min.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Extreme abdominal pain with intercourse: This is less specific for endometrial cancer and more indicative of conditions such as pelvic inflammatory disease or endometriosis.
B. Postmenopausal bleeding: This is correct. Postmenopausal bleeding is a common symptom of endometrial cancer and warrants further evaluation.
C. Decreased white blood cell count: This is incorrect. Endometrial cancer does not typically present with a decreased white blood cell count; it may present with normal or elevated levels depending on the stage and presence of infection.
D. Bilateral swelling on the posterior of the vulva: This is incorrect. Swelling of the vulva is not characteristic of endometrial cancer but may be associated with other gynecological issues.
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