A nurse is working with an emergency response team in caring for a group of people who may have been exposed to anthrax while doing farm work. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

Administer pain medication.

Administer antibiotic therapy.

Administer an antiviral medication.

Administer an antitoxin.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Administer pain medication: Pain management is not the primary intervention for exposure to anthrax; the focus should be on addressing the disease directly.
B. Administer antibiotic therapy: This is correct. Post-exposure prophylaxis with antibiotics is crucial in preventing the development of anthrax, especially after exposure to spores.
C. Administer an antiviral medication: This is incorrect. Anthrax is caused by bacteria, not viruses, so antiviral medications are not effective.
D. Administer an antitoxin: While antitoxins are used in treating symptomatic anthrax, the immediate and appropriate action for exposure is to start antibiotic therapy.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Hormone therapy decreases the risk of cardiovascular events: This is incorrect. Hormone therapy has been associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events, such as heart attacks and strokes, especially in older women or those with preexisting risk factors.
B. Hormone therapy may prevent osteoporotic fractures: This is correct. Hormone therapy can help maintain bone density and reduce the risk of osteoporotic fractures, which is beneficial after a total hysterectomy.
C. Hormone therapy should be taken in doses throughout the day: This is incorrect. Hormone therapy is typically taken in a single daily dose or according to a specific schedule, rather than multiple times throughout the day.
D. If a dose is missed, then the next dose should be doubled: This is incorrect. Missing a dose of hormone therapy should be addressed according to the specific medication instructions, and doubling the dose is not generally recommended.

A. Extreme abdominal pain with intercourse B. Postmenopausal bleeding C. Decreased white blood cell count D. Bilateral swelling on the posterior of the vulva

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Extreme abdominal pain with intercourse: This is less specific for endometrial cancer and more indicative of conditions such as pelvic inflammatory disease or endometriosis.
B. Postmenopausal bleeding: This is correct. Postmenopausal bleeding is a common symptom of endometrial cancer and warrants further evaluation.
C. Decreased white blood cell count: This is incorrect. Endometrial cancer does not typically present with a decreased white blood cell count; it may present with normal or elevated levels depending on the stage and presence of infection.
D. Bilateral swelling on the posterior of the vulva: This is incorrect. Swelling of the vulva is not characteristic of endometrial cancer but may be associated with other gynecological issues.

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A nurse is working with an emergency response team in caring for a group of people who may have been exposed to anthrax while doing farm work. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is presenting educational materials to a group of middle-aged clients about menopausal hormone therapy following total hysterectomy. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the education?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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