A nurse is caring for a client who has just received the diagnosis of endometrial cancer. During the nursing assessment, which of the following manifestations is likely to be reported by this client?

Extreme abdominal pain with intercourse

Postmenopausal bleeding

Decreased white blood cell count

Bilateral swelling on the posterior of the vulva

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Extreme abdominal pain with intercourse: This is less specific for endometrial cancer and more indicative of conditions such as pelvic inflammatory disease or endometriosis.
B. Postmenopausal bleeding: This is correct. Postmenopausal bleeding is a common symptom of endometrial cancer and warrants further evaluation.
C. Decreased white blood cell count: This is incorrect. Endometrial cancer does not typically present with a decreased white blood cell count; it may present with normal or elevated levels depending on the stage and presence of infection.
D. Bilateral swelling on the posterior of the vulva: This is incorrect. Swelling of the vulva is not characteristic of endometrial cancer but may be associated with other gynecological issues.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Initiate intravenous (IV) access for fluid replacement. This is important for managing shock or significant blood loss, but it is not the first priority in managing severe bleeding.
B. Place the client's arm in a dependent position. This would not be appropriate for severe bleeding and does not control hemorrhage effectively.
C. Apply pressure directly to the wound. This is correct. Direct pressure is the immediate and essential step to control bleeding in a severe wound. It helps to stabilize the clot and reduce blood loss.
D. Apply a tourniquet just below the level of the shoulder. This is not the first intervention. A tourniquet is used if direct pressure does not control severe bleeding and should be applied above the wound, not below.

A. A history of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) B. Abdominal bloating starting several days before menses C. Dysmenorrhea that is unresponsive to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) D. An atypical Papanicolaou (Pap) smear at her last clinic visit

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. A history of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID): While PID can cause pelvic pain, it is not specifically indicative of endometriosis. Endometriosis is a distinct condition with its own set of symptoms.
B. Abdominal bloating starting several days before menses: This symptom can occur with endometriosis, but it is not as specific as other symptoms.
C. Dysmenorrhea that is unresponsive to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs): Endometriosis often presents with severe dysmenorrhea that does not respond well to NSAIDs. This is a classic symptom of endometriosis.
D. An atypical Papanicolaou (Pap) smear at her last clinic visit: An atypical Pap smear is more related to cervical abnormalities and is not a specific finding for endometriosis.

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A nurse is caring for a client who has just received the diagnosis of endometrial cancer. During the nursing assessment, which of the following manifestations is likely to be reported by this client?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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