A nurse is caring for a client who has just received the diagnosis of endometrial cancer. During the nursing assessment, which of the following manifestations is likely to be reported by this client?
Extreme abdominal pain with intercourse
Postmenopausal bleeding
Decreased white blood cell count
Bilateral swelling on the posterior of the vulva
The Correct Answer is B
A. Extreme abdominal pain with intercourse: This is less specific for endometrial cancer and more indicative of conditions such as pelvic inflammatory disease or endometriosis.
B. Postmenopausal bleeding: This is correct. Postmenopausal bleeding is a common symptom of endometrial cancer and warrants further evaluation.
C. Decreased white blood cell count: This is incorrect. Endometrial cancer does not typically present with a decreased white blood cell count; it may present with normal or elevated levels depending on the stage and presence of infection.
D. Bilateral swelling on the posterior of the vulva: This is incorrect. Swelling of the vulva is not characteristic of endometrial cancer but may be associated with other gynecological issues.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Allow a drinking glass on the client's meal tray: This is incorrect. Allowing objects that could potentially be used for self-harm is unsafe. All items on the client's meal tray should be carefully reviewed to ensure they do not pose a risk.
B. Place the client in four-point restraints: This is incorrect. Restraints are used as a last resort and should only be applied following a thorough assessment of the client's needs and risks, considering less restrictive measures first.
C. Inspect the client's personal belongings: This is correct. Inspecting personal belongings is crucial to ensure that the client does not have items that could be used for self-harm. This step helps in identifying and removing potential hazards.
D. Assign the client to a private room: This is incorrect. Assigning a client to a private room might not be appropriate as it could isolate the client and reduce opportunities for observation and intervention. A safer approach is to place the client in a room where they can be closely monitored, typically a shared room with staff supervision.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. A 28-year-old client who has a history of pelvic inflammatory disease: This is incorrect. While a history of pelvic inflammatory disease does not necessarily contraindicate oral contraceptive use, it should be assessed for any other potential complications or contraindications.
B. A 26-year-old client who is mobile post appendectomy: This is incorrect. Recent surgery, such as an appendectomy, is not a contraindication for oral contraceptives, provided the client is otherwise healthy.
C. A 38-year-old client who reports smoking one pack of cigarettes every day: This is correct. Smoking, especially in women over 35, is a contraindication for oral contraceptives due to the increased risk of cardiovascular events such as thrombosis.
D. A 32-year-old client who has fibrocystic breast disease: This is incorrect. Fibrocystic breast disease does not contraindicate the use of oral contraceptives.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.