Following a history of vaginal discharge and lower abdominal pain, a client is diagnosed with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). When providing client education, the nurse identifies an understanding of the teaching when the client makes which statement in regard to preventing a reoccurrence?
"I should include foods high in protein and vitamin C in my diet."
"My sexual partner should be tested for sexually transmitted infections (STIs)."
"I will require surgery to drain and irrigate my pelvis."
"I should receive the human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine."
The Correct Answer is B
A. "I should include foods high in protein and vitamin C in my diet": This is incorrect. While a healthy diet can support overall health, it is not a specific preventive measure for PID recurrence.
B. "My sexual partner should be tested for sexually transmitted infections (STIs)": This is correct. Preventing STI transmission is crucial in reducing the risk of PID recurrence. Both partners should be tested and treated if necessary to prevent reinfection.
C. "I will require surgery to drain and irrigate my pelvis": This is incorrect. Surgery is not typically required to prevent PID recurrence. Treatment and prevention focus on antibiotics and STI management.
D. "I should receive the human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine": This is incorrect. While the HPV vaccine can prevent certain sexually transmitted infections, it does not directly address the prevention of PID, which is more related to preventing and treating STIs.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Hemorrhage: This is the priority complication to monitor for in the immediate postoperative period after a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Hemorrhage can lead to significant blood loss and requires prompt intervention.
B. Pain: While pain management is important, it is not the immediate priority compared to the risk of hemorrhage in the postoperative setting.
C. Urinary retention: Although important to monitor, urinary retention is a common postoperative issue but does not pose the same immediate risk as hemorrhage.
D. Infection: Infection is a concern but typically develops later in the postoperative period and is not as immediate a risk as hemorrhage.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. A 28-year-old client who has a history of pelvic inflammatory disease: This is incorrect. While a history of pelvic inflammatory disease does not necessarily contraindicate oral contraceptive use, it should be assessed for any other potential complications or contraindications.
B. A 26-year-old client who is mobile post appendectomy: This is incorrect. Recent surgery, such as an appendectomy, is not a contraindication for oral contraceptives, provided the client is otherwise healthy.
C. A 38-year-old client who reports smoking one pack of cigarettes every day: This is correct. Smoking, especially in women over 35, is a contraindication for oral contraceptives due to the increased risk of cardiovascular events such as thrombosis.
D. A 32-year-old client who has fibrocystic breast disease: This is incorrect. Fibrocystic breast disease does not contraindicate the use of oral contraceptives.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
