A nurse is teaching a class about the use of pain medications for clients who have an opioid addiction. Which of the following medications are a nonopioid analgesic? (Select All that Apply)
Codeine
Ibuprofen
Fentanyl
Oxycodone
Acetaminophen
Correct Answer : B,E
A) Codeine:
Codeine is an opioid analgesic and is not classified as a nonopioid analgesic.
B) Ibuprofen:
Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) and is considered a nonopioid analgesic. It works by reducing inflammation and pain without producing the same addictive effects as opioids.
C) Fentanyl:
Fentanyl is a potent opioid analgesic and is not classified as a nonopioid analgesic.
D) Oxycodone:
Oxycodone is an opioid analgesic and is not classified as a nonopioid analgesic.
E) Acetaminophen:
Acetaminophen, also known as paracetamol, is a nonopioid analgesic commonly used to relieve mild to moderate pain and reduce fever. It is not classified as an opioid and does not produce the same addictive effects.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) The client tolerates a second dose of medication with no greater than 1 peripheral edema:
This does not directly indicate a therapeutic response to epinephrine for angioedema. Angioedema primarily involves swelling of deeper layers of the skin, often around the eyes and lips, and sometimes the throat, which can cause breathing difficulties. Tolerating a second dose of medication with minimal peripheral edema does not specifically address the acute respiratory effects of angioedema.
B) Respirations are unlabored:
This is the correct answer. Angioedema can cause swelling in the airways, leading to difficulty breathing. Epinephrine is used to reduce this swelling and improve airway patency. Unlabored respirations indicate that the airway is not obstructed, which means the epinephrine has successfully alleviated the swelling causing the angioedema.
C) Client reports decreased groin pain of 3 on a 1 to 10 scale:
Decreased groin pain is not relevant to the treatment of angioedema with epinephrine. Pain relief in the groin area does not indicate a therapeutic response to epinephrine, which is primarily used to address airway and anaphylactic symptoms.
D) The client's blood pressure when arising from resting position is at premedication levels:
While epinephrine can affect blood pressure, the main concern with angioedema is airway obstruction rather than blood pressure control. Normalizing blood pressure does not specifically indicate that the epinephrine has successfully treated the angioedema and improved the client's respiratory status.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) "Would you like to talk about your concerns?": This response acknowledges the client's feelings and offers support and an opportunity to discuss their concerns further. It respects the client's autonomy and allows them to express their thoughts and feelings about the situation.
B) "Why don't you want to tell your partner your diagnosis?": This response may come across as confrontational and judgmental, potentially making the client feel defensive. It does not facilitate open communication or address the client's concerns in a supportive manner.
C) "If I were you, I would tell my partner.": This response imposes the nurse's values and beliefs on the client, which may not be helpful or appropriate. It undermines the client's autonomy and decision-making process.
D) "Most people find it helpful to talk to their partner.": While this statement may be true for some individuals, it assumes that the client's situation is the same as others and does not take into account the client's unique circumstances and preferences. It does not encourage open dialogue or address the client's concerns directly.
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