A nurse is conducting a fall risk assessment for her clients. The nurse should identify that which of the following clients is the greatest risk for a fall?
An older adult who is confused and has urinary frequency
An older adult with hearing impairment
A client who has a dressing on his foot due to a pressure ulcer
A client who has osteoarthritis and uses a walker
The Correct Answer is A
A) An older adult who is confused and has urinary frequency:
This client is at the greatest risk for a fall due to several factors. Confusion increases the likelihood of disorientation and impaired judgment, leading to accidents. Urinary frequency may necessitate frequent trips to the bathroom, increasing the chances of falls, especially if the client is disoriented or unsteady on their feet.
B) An older adult with hearing impairment:
While hearing impairment can contribute to a fall risk by limiting the client's ability to hear warnings or instructions, it may not pose as immediate a risk as confusion and urinary frequency, which directly affect mobility and judgment.
C) A client who has a dressing on his foot due to a pressure ulcer:
While having a dressing on the foot due to a pressure ulcer increases the risk of falls by potentially affecting the client's gait and balance, it may not be as significant a risk factor as confusion and urinary frequency, which directly impact the client's ability to safely navigate their environment.
D) A client who has osteoarthritis and uses a walker:
Although osteoarthritis and the use of a walker can contribute to mobility issues and an increased risk of falls, they may not present as immediate a risk as confusion and urinary frequency, which can lead to more unpredictable and hazardous situations.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","E"]
Explanation
A) Codeine:
Codeine is an opioid analgesic and is not classified as a nonopioid analgesic.
B) Ibuprofen:
Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) and is considered a nonopioid analgesic. It works by reducing inflammation and pain without producing the same addictive effects as opioids.
C) Fentanyl:
Fentanyl is a potent opioid analgesic and is not classified as a nonopioid analgesic.
D) Oxycodone:
Oxycodone is an opioid analgesic and is not classified as a nonopioid analgesic.
E) Acetaminophen:
Acetaminophen, also known as paracetamol, is a nonopioid analgesic commonly used to relieve mild to moderate pain and reduce fever. It is not classified as an opioid and does not produce the same addictive effects.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) The client with end-stage renal failure scheduled for dialysis is at risk for fluid volume excess rather than deficit. Dialysis is a treatment to remove excess fluid and waste products from the body, which can lead to fluid volume deficit if not managed appropriately, but the scenario does not indicate current dehydration.
B) The client with gastroenteritis and fever is at risk for fluid volume deficit due to fluid loss from vomiting, diarrhea, and fever-induced diaphoresis. Gastroenteritis commonly leads to dehydration, especially when accompanied by fever, which increases fluid loss through sweating.
C) The client with left-sided heart failure and an elevated brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) level is at risk for fluid volume excess rather than deficit. Elevated BNP levels indicate heart failure, which can result in fluid retention and volume overload rather than deficit.
D) The client who has been NPO since midnight for endoscopy is at risk for fluid volume deficit due to fasting. However, the severity and duration of fasting are not specified in the scenario, so it may not present an immediate risk compared to the client with gastroenteritis and fever.
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