A nurse is talking with an adult child of a client who was involuntarily admitted to an inpatient mental health facility. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
"The provider will notify your parent's employer about admission to the facility."
"Your parent will have to take the medication that the doctor prescribes."
"Your parent might have electroconvulsive therapy without providing consent."
"The provider can prescribe restraints if your parent tries to harm others."
The Correct Answer is D
A. The provider is not required to notify the client's employer about the admission to a mental health facility. This information is protected under confidentiality laws and regulations.
B. While the client may be strongly encouraged to take prescribed medications, they cannot be forced to do so without consent, especially if they are competent to make their own decisions.
C. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) typically requires informed consent from the patient or their legal representative, even in an involuntary admission scenario. Therefore, it is incorrect to state that ECT can be performed without consent.
D. If the client poses a risk of harm to themselves or others, the provider can prescribe restraints as a safety measure. This statement is correct and aligns with safety protocols in mental health facilities.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. 3hr oral glucose tolerance test - This test is typically used for diagnosing gestational diabetes or impaired glucose tolerance, not for long-term management.
B. HbA1c - Hemoglobin A1c reflects the average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months and is a reliable indicator of long-term glycemic control.
C. Fasting blood glucose test - This provides a snapshot of blood glucose levels at a specific point in time and is not as reliable for assessing long-term glycemic control as HbA1c.
D. Urinalysis for ketones - Urinalysis for ketones is useful for detecting acute complications such as diabetic ketoacidosis but does not reflect long-term management of blood glucose levels.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Diminished bowel sounds are not typically indicative of fluid overload. They may suggest decreased gastrointestinal motility, but this finding alone does not specifically indicate fluid overload.
B. Bradycardia is not typically associated with fluid overload. Instead, tachycardia may occur as the body attempts to compensate for decreased cardiac output.
C. Hypotension may occur with fluid overload in severe cases, but it is not a consistent or specific finding. Other signs, such as bounding pulses, are more indicative of fluid overload.
D. Bounding pulses, or strong and forceful arterial pulses, can be a sign of fluid overload due to increased blood volume. This finding may be observed in clients receiving excessive enteral feedings or intravenous fluids.
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