A nurse is talking with an adult child of a client who was involuntarily admitted to an inpatient mental health facility. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
"The provider will notify your parent's employer about admission to the facility."
"Your parent will have to take the medication that the doctor prescribes."
"Your parent might have electroconvulsive therapy without providing consent."
"The provider can prescribe restraints if your parent tries to harm others."
The Correct Answer is D
A. The provider is not required to notify the client's employer about the admission to a mental health facility. This information is protected under confidentiality laws and regulations.
B. While the client may be strongly encouraged to take prescribed medications, they cannot be forced to do so without consent, especially if they are competent to make their own decisions.
C. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) typically requires informed consent from the patient or their legal representative, even in an involuntary admission scenario. Therefore, it is incorrect to state that ECT can be performed without consent.
D. If the client poses a risk of harm to themselves or others, the provider can prescribe restraints as a safety measure. This statement is correct and aligns with safety protocols in mental health facilities.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Administering furosemide may also be appropriate for managing heart failure symptoms, but the priority action based on the client's condition is to withhold digoxin.
B. The client's vital signs indicate bradycardia (pulse 52/min), which is a common adverse effect of digoxin, especially in the setting of heart failure. Withholding digoxin is necessary to prevent further exacerbation of bradycardia and potential toxicity.
C. Withholding spironolactone may be considered if there are concerns about electrolyte imbalances, but it is not the priority action in this scenario.
D. Administering ferrous sulfate is not indicated based on the client's chart findings; there is no indication of anemia or iron deficiency.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Vancomycin is not typically associated with hepatotoxicity.
B. Ototoxicity, which can manifest as hearing loss or tinnitus, is a potential adverse reaction of vancomycin therapy, especially with prolonged or high-dose therapy. Monitoring for signs of hearing impairment is essential.
C. Hypercalcemia is not a common adverse reaction associated with vancomycin therapy.
D. Hypertension is not a common adverse reaction associated with vancomycin therapy.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.