A nurse from the State Health Department is instructing a group of nurses regarding reportable infections. Which of the following infections should the nurse report to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention?

Herpes simplex virus 2

Candida albicans

Staphylococcus aureus

Lyme disease

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Herpes simplex virus 2: Herpes simplex virus infections are not typically reportable to the

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). These infections are commonly managed at the local level.

B. Candida albicans: Candida albicans infections are not typically reportable to the CDC. Candida species are common pathogens and are usually managed at the local level.

C. Staphylococcus aureus: Staphylococcus aureus infections, including methicillin-resistant

Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA), are not typically reportable to the CDC unless part of a larger outbreak or public health concern.

D. Lyme disease: Lyme disease is a reportable infection that requires notification to public health authorities, including the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). Lyme disease is a vector-borne illness transmitted through the bite of infected ticks.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Failure to engraft typically presents with symptoms such as persistent neutropenia, thrombocytopenia, and anemia, rather than skin peeling.

B. Veno-occlusive disease, also known as sinusoidal obstruction syndrome, can lead to liver dysfunction and subsequent skin manifestations such as peeling, especially on the palms and soles.

C. Graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) typically presents with symptoms such as skin rash, diarrhea, and liver dysfunction, but peeling skin is not a hallmark manifestation.

D. Pancytopenia refers to a deficiency of all types of blood cells (red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets) and is not typically associated with skin peeling as a primary symptom.

A. A client who is 2 days postpartum and whose fundus is 2 fingerbreadths below the umbilicus B. A client who is 1 day postpartum and has not voided in 8 hr C. A client who is 3 days postpartum and has not had a bowel movement since prior to admission D. A client who is 4 days postpartum and has lochia serosa

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. A fundal height of 2 fingerbreadths below the umbilicus in a client who is 2 days postpartum is within the expected range for that time frame and does not require immediate assessment.

B. A client who is 1 day postpartum and has not voided in 8 hours may be at risk for urinary retention, which can lead to complications such as bladder distension or urinary tract infection. Prompt assessment and intervention are needed.

C. Not having a bowel movement since prior to admission is not an urgent concern in the

immediate postpartum period, especially if the client is otherwise stable and not experiencing discomfort or other symptoms.

D. Lochia serosa, which is the normal vaginal discharge that occurs 3 to 10 days postpartum, is not an urgent concern and does not require immediate assessment.

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A nurse from the State Health Department is instructing a group of nurses regarding reportable infections. Which of the following infections should the nurse report to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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