A nurse in a postpartum unit is caring for several clients. After receiving a change-of-shift report, which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
A client who is 2 days postpartum and whose fundus is 2 fingerbreadths below the umbilicus
A client who is 1 day postpartum and has not voided in 8 hr
A client who is 3 days postpartum and has not had a bowel movement since prior to admission
A client who is 4 days postpartum and has lochia serosa
The Correct Answer is B
A. A fundal height of 2 fingerbreadths below the umbilicus in a client who is 2 days postpartum is within the expected range for that time frame and does not require immediate assessment.
B. A client who is 1 day postpartum and has not voided in 8 hours may be at risk for urinary retention, which can lead to complications such as bladder distension or urinary tract infection. Prompt assessment and intervention are needed.
C. Not having a bowel movement since prior to admission is not an urgent concern in the
immediate postpartum period, especially if the client is otherwise stable and not experiencing discomfort or other symptoms.
D. Lochia serosa, which is the normal vaginal discharge that occurs 3 to 10 days postpartum, is not an urgent concern and does not require immediate assessment.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. The child develops a dry, hacking cough: This suggests ineffective clearance of secretions and may indicate a need for further intervention.
B. The child has increased nasal secretions: Nasal secretions are not directly related to the effectiveness of high-frequency chest compressions in clearing pulmonary secretions.
C. The child has increased sputum production: Increased sputum production indicates that the
treatment is effectively mobilizing and clearing mucus from the airways, which is beneficial for a child with cystic fibrosis.
D. The child develops diminished breath sounds: Diminished breath sounds could indicate a complication such as atelectasis or pneumothorax and would not be an expected finding with effective high-frequency chest compressions.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Rationale for A: Decreased reflexes can indicate hypokalemia, an adverse effect of loop diuretics. Loop diuretics increase the excretion of potassium, which can lead to low potassium levels, manifesting as muscle weakness and diminished reflexes.
Rationale for B: Weight gain, especially in the context of heart failure, suggests fluid retention rather than an adverse effect of a loop diuretic, which is expected to reduce fluid retention by promoting diuresis.
Rationale for C: Increased urinary output is an expected effect of loop diuretics, as they are used to remove excess fluid. This would not be considered an adverse effect unless it leads to dehydration or electrolyte imbalances.
Rationale for D: Jugular vein distention indicates fluid overload, which would suggest that the diuretic is not effective or that the heart failure is worsening. It is not a direct adverse effect of the medication itself.
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