A nurse in a mental health clinic is observing clients in the day room. The nurse sits down to talk with an adolescent client who was admitted with clinical depression. After a few minutes of conversation, the adolescent asks the nurse, "Why did you choose to talk to me out of this room full of kids?" Which of the following responses by the nurse is therapeutic?
"You looked like you would be the most likely to talk back with me."
"Let's go see what activities are going on outside."
"Why shouldn't I talk to you? You looked lonely."
"You're curious why I am interested in you and not the others?"
The Correct Answer is D
A. This response does not address the adolescent's underlying question and may come across as dismissive.
B. This response avoids addressing the adolescent's question and suggests changing the subject.
C. This response is somewhat confrontational and does not explore the adolescent's feelings or concerns.
D. This response acknowledges the adolescent's curiosity and opens the door for further discussion about why the nurse chose to engage with them. It invites the adolescent to explore their feelings and thoughts.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Vancomycin is not typically associated with hepatotoxicity.
B. Ototoxicity, which can manifest as hearing loss or tinnitus, is a potential adverse reaction of vancomycin therapy, especially with prolonged or high-dose therapy. Monitoring for signs of hearing impairment is essential.
C. Hypercalcemia is not a common adverse reaction associated with vancomycin therapy.
D. Hypertension is not a common adverse reaction associated with vancomycin therapy.
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"C","dropdown-group-2":"A"}
Explanation
The nurse should first administer the client's cefazolinto the client's IV access
Rationale:
Cefazolin is an antibiotic prescribed to treat the client's suspected infection indicated by the fever and hip surgical wound inflammation. Administering the antibiotic promptly is essential to initiate treatment and address the underlying cause of the fever. The prescription specifies administering cefazolin intravenously, so the nurse should prioritize administering it through the client's IV access. Administering acetaminophen or alprazolam may be appropriate based on the client's symptoms and vital signs, but addressing the infection with antibiotics takes precedence.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.