A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who is taking a garlic supplement. The nurse should identify that which of the following findings is a contraindication for taking this supplement?
The client is taking an antidepressant.
The client has a history of a seizure disorder.
The client takes aspirin daily.
The client has a history of rheumatoid arthritis
The Correct Answer is C
- A: Garlic supplements are not contraindicated for clients taking antidepressants. While garlic is known to have a variety of health benefits, there is no well-documented interaction between garlic supplements and antidepressants that would contraindicate their concurrent use.
- B: There is no direct contraindication for the use of garlic supplements in clients with a history of seizure disorders. Garlic supplements do not have a seizure threshold-lowering effect, which is a common concern with some medications and conditions that may exacerbate seizure disorders.
- C: Garlic supplements may increase the risk of bleeding, especially when taken with other substances that have anticoagulant properties, such as aspirin. This is due to garlic's potential effect on platelet aggregation and the blood clotting process, making it a contraindication for clients who take aspirin daily.
- D: Garlic supplements do not have a contraindication for clients with a history of rheumatoid arthritis. In fact, some studies suggest that garlic may have anti-inflammatory properties, which could be beneficial for individuals with inflammatory conditions like rheumatoid arthritis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Levothyroxine is a thyroid hormone replacement medication commonly used to treat hypothyroidism. It is not associated with teratogenic effects when used appropriately.
B. Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant medication that is known to be teratogenic, especially when used during the first trimester of pregnancy. It is associated with an increased risk of congenital malformations, such as cleft palate and heart defects, in infants born to mothers who take the medication during pregnancy.
C. Magnesium oxide is a mineral supplement commonly used to treat constipation during pregnancy. It is not associated with teratogenic effects when used appropriately.
D. Ferrous sulfate is an iron supplement commonly used to treat chronic anemia during pregnancy. It is not associated with teratogenic effects when used appropriately.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
- A: A heart rate greater than 60/min indicates that the transcutaneous pacing is effectively maintaining a heart rate within a normal range, which is crucial for adequate cardiac output and systemic perfusion.
- B: While 2+ pedal pulses indicate good peripheral perfusion, they do not directly reflect the effectiveness of transcutaneous pacing in treating complete heart block.
- C: Pacer spikes should appear before the QRS complex to show that the pacing stimulus is being delivered appropriately. Spikes after the QRS complex suggest that the pacing is not capturing the heart effectively.
- D: Distended jugular veins would be more indicative of heart failure or fluid overload and do not directly relate to the effectiveness of pacing therapy.
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