A nurse is reviewing the medication history of a client who has a new prescription for colchicine. Which of the following medications increases the client's risk when used in combination with colchicine for developing rhabdomyolysis?
Omeprazole
Hydrochlorothiazide
Carvedilol
Atorvastatin
The Correct Answer is D
D. Atorvastatin is a statin medication used to lower cholesterol levels and reduce the risk of cardiovascular events. Statins, including atorvastatin, have been associated with an increased risk of rhabdomyolysis, particularly when used in high doses or in combination with other medications that can interact to increase statin levels in the blood.
A. There is no direct evidence to suggest that omeprazole increases the risk of rhabdomyolysis when used in combination with colchicine.
B. There is limited evidence to suggest that hydrochlorothiazide significantly increases the risk of rhabdomyolysis when used in combination with colchicine.
C. There is no direct evidence to suggest that carvedilol increases the risk of rhabdomyolysis when used in combination with colchicine.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
D. Difficulty or inability to abduct (raise out to the side) the arm at the shoulder is a classic finding in rotator cuff injuries, particularly in cases of significant tears or severe inflammation. This limitation in shoulder movement can be due to pain, weakness, or mechanical impingement caused by the injured rotator cuff.
A. The drop arm test is a physical examination maneuver used to assess for rotator cuff tears. In a negative drop arm test, the patient is able to slowly lower their arm from an abducted position (out to the side) to their side without significant pain or weakness. A negative test suggests that there may not be a complete tear of the rotator cuff.
B. Alteration in the contour of the shoulder joint could indicate various shoulder pathologies, including rotator cuff injuries. However, it is a nonspecific finding and can occur with other shoulder conditions as well.
C. Tinel's sign is a test used to assess for nerve compression or irritation. While it can be positive in conditions such as carpal tunnel syndrome, it is not typically associated with rotator cuff injuries.
Correct Answer is ["A","D"]
Explanation
A. The heart rate has increased from 92/min on Day 1 to 108/min on Day 2. This significant increase warrants immediate follow-up as it may indicate pain, anxiety, or an underlying physiological issue such as hemorrhage, infection, or cardiac complications.
D. The temperature has increased from 36.4°C (97.5°F) on Day 1 to 37.2°C (98.9°F) on Day 2. While this increase is within a relatively normal range, it is approaching a fever range (> 38°C or 100.4°F) and warrants further evaluation to determine if there is an underlying infection or inflammation.
B. The oxygen saturation remains relatively stable, from 95% on Day 1 to 96% on Day 2. While it is important to monitor oxygen saturation, the minimal change does not indicate an immediate concern. However, it should still be monitored closely for any further decrease.
C. Edema is not directly mentioned in the provided data. While edema can be indicative of various health issues, there is no evidence in the given information to suggest its presence or severity as a concern requiring immediate follow-up.
E. Urine color is not provided in the given data. While changes in urine color can indicate dehydration or other health issues, it is not mentioned in the assessment findings and therefore not a factor for immediate follow-up based on the information provided.
F Pedal pulses were noted as +2 on Day 1, indicating that they were present and normal. Unless there is a significant change in pedal pulses or signs of vascular compromise, such as decreased or absent pulses, there is no immediate need for follow-up based on the given information.
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