The outpatient surgery nurse reviews the complete blood cell (CBC) count results for a patient who is scheduled for surgery. The results are white blood cell (WBC) count 10.2 x 103/μL;
hemoglobin 15 g/dL; hematocrit 45%; platelets 150 x 103/μL. Which action should the nurse
take?
Notify the surgeon and anesthesiologist immediately.
Ask the patient about any symptoms of a recent infection.
Continue to prepare the patient for the surgical procedure.
The Correct Answer is C
C. The client’s laboratory values are all within normal range. It is therefore, safe for the nurse to proceed with preparation for theatre.
A. Notifying the provider immediately is a preferred action in the case of any abnormal laboratory values of concern.
B. Questioning on the recent infection would be relevant if the white blood count is elevated which is not the case in this scenario.
D. The client’s hemoglobin is within normal range and therefore, no need for transfusion at this point.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Muscle spasms can occur in response to the hip fracture as the body attempts to protect the injured area. Spasms may cause pain and muscle rigidity in the affected hip.
B. Pallor refers to paleness of the skin. While hip fractures can result in various signs and symptoms such as pain, swelling, and bruising, hip pallor specifically is not typically associated with a hip fracture.
C. Leg abduction refers to moving the leg away from the midline of the body. In the case of a hip fracture, the affected leg may be held in adduction (closer to the midline) due to pain and muscle guarding.
D. Leg lengthening is not typically associated with a hip fracture. In fact, a hip fracture can often lead to apparent leg shortening due to displacement or angulation of the fractured bone.
Correct Answer is ["A","D","E"]
Explanation
A. Smoking has been associated with an increased risk of developing osteoarthritis, particularly in the knees and hips. Smoking may contribute to inflammation and oxidative stress, which can exacerbate joint damage.
D. Aging is a significant risk factor for osteoarthritis. As individuals age, the cartilage in their joints may naturally deteriorate over time, leading to the development of osteoarthritis.
E. Obesity is a well-established risk factor for osteoarthritis, particularly in weight-bearing joints such as the knees and hips. Excess body weight places increased stress on the joints, leading to accelerated wear and tear of the joint cartilage.
B. Bacteria are not typically associated with the development of osteoarthritis. Osteoarthritis is primarily a non-inflammatory condition related to wear and tear on the joints rather than an infectious process.
C. Diuretics are medications used to treat conditions such as hypertension and edema by increasing urine output. There is no direct evidence linking diuretic use to the development of osteoarthritis.
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