A nurse is teaching a client who has a fractured femur about fat emboli syndrome. Which of the following findings should the nurse include as a manifestation of a fat embolism?
Paresthesia distal to the fracture
Fever
Swollen calf
Petechiae on the chest
The Correct Answer is D
D. Petechiae, which are small red or purple spots caused by bleeding under the skin, are a classic manifestation of fat embolism syndrome. They typically appear on the upper chest, axilla (armpit), and conjunctiva of the eyes. Petechiae result from the occlusion of small blood vessels by fat globules, leading to microvascular bleeding.
A Paresthesia distal to the fracture site is not a typical manifestation of fat embolism syndrome. Instead, paresthesia may suggest nerve compression or injury related to the fracture itself rather than fat emboli.
B Fever is not a specific manifestation of fat embolism syndrome. While fever can occur with various types of infections or inflammatory conditions, it is not a hallmark symptom of fat embolism.
C Swelling of the calf can occur with conditions such as deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is a potential complication of lower limb fractures. However, it is not a typical manifestation of fat embolism syndrome.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
B. Muscle spasms can sometimes be triggered or exacerbated by poor positioning or pressure on certain areas of the body. Realigning the client's position will help relieve muscle spasms by reducing pressure or tension on the affected muscles.
A. Adjusting the weight amount in traction may help alleviate pain and muscle spasms by reducing tension on the affected limb. However, realignment should be done first.
C. Muscle relaxants can help alleviate muscle spasms and associated pain by reducing muscle tone and tension. However, realignment should be done first.
D. Opioid analgesics are potent pain relievers that can effectively manage moderate to severe pain, including pain from muscle spasms. However, that should not be the first intervention.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
D. Difficulty or inability to abduct (raise out to the side) the arm at the shoulder is a classic finding in rotator cuff injuries, particularly in cases of significant tears or severe inflammation. This limitation in shoulder movement can be due to pain, weakness, or mechanical impingement caused by the injured rotator cuff.
A. The drop arm test is a physical examination maneuver used to assess for rotator cuff tears. In a negative drop arm test, the patient is able to slowly lower their arm from an abducted position (out to the side) to their side without significant pain or weakness. A negative test suggests that there may not be a complete tear of the rotator cuff.
B. Alteration in the contour of the shoulder joint could indicate various shoulder pathologies, including rotator cuff injuries. However, it is a nonspecific finding and can occur with other shoulder conditions as well.
C. Tinel's sign is a test used to assess for nerve compression or irritation. While it can be positive in conditions such as carpal tunnel syndrome, it is not typically associated with rotator cuff injuries.
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