A nurse is caring for a client who is 1-day postoperative following total hip arthroplasty. It is 0830 and the client is schedule for physical therapy (PT) at 0900. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take?
Teach the client which positions to avoid during PT.
Identify the client's pain level and medicate if needed.
Perform the client's morning care.
Encourage the client to use full weight bearing.
The Correct Answer is B
B. Assessing the client's pain level is crucial, especially before physical therapy, as pain can affect participation and compliance with therapy. If the client is experiencing pain, appropriate pain management measures should be implemented before PT to optimize participation and comfort.
A. The nurse should educate the client on proper body mechanics and positions to avoid during physical therapy to promote safe movement and prevent complications. However, this is not a priority.
C. While morning care is important for maintaining hygiene and comfort, it may not be the priority at this specific time, especially if the client is scheduled for physical therapy soon.
D. Encouraging full weight bearing immediately postoperative may not be appropriate, as the surgical site needs time to heal and regain strength.
Nursing Test Bank
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Venous thromboembolism (VTE), including deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE), is a significant concern following knee replacement surgery due to the increased risk of blood clot formation associated with immobility and surgery. Limited mobility can predispose the patient to stasis of blood flow, which increases the risk of VTE.
B. While fluid and electrolyte imbalance can occur postoperatively, especially if the patient experiences complications such as excessive bleeding or fluid shifts, limited mobility alone is less likely to directly lead to this complication as a priority.
C. Limited mobility can potentially impact surgical wound healing by delaying the resolution of edema, impairing circulation, and increasing the risk of infection. However, this complication may not be as immediate or life-threatening as others on the list.
D. Hypovolemic shock, characterized by inadequate tissue perfusion due to decreased circulating blood volume, is a severe complication that can result from significant blood loss. While bleeding can occur postoperatively, it is less common as a complication of knee replacement surgery, especially within the first few days.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
D. Difficulty or inability to abduct (raise out to the side) the arm at the shoulder is a classic finding in rotator cuff injuries, particularly in cases of significant tears or severe inflammation. This limitation in shoulder movement can be due to pain, weakness, or mechanical impingement caused by the injured rotator cuff.
A. The drop arm test is a physical examination maneuver used to assess for rotator cuff tears. In a negative drop arm test, the patient is able to slowly lower their arm from an abducted position (out to the side) to their side without significant pain or weakness. A negative test suggests that there may not be a complete tear of the rotator cuff.
B. Alteration in the contour of the shoulder joint could indicate various shoulder pathologies, including rotator cuff injuries. However, it is a nonspecific finding and can occur with other shoulder conditions as well.
C. Tinel's sign is a test used to assess for nerve compression or irritation. While it can be positive in conditions such as carpal tunnel syndrome, it is not typically associated with rotator cuff injuries.
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