A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client who reports shoulder pain. Which of the following findings by the nurse indicates rotator cuff injury?

Negative drop arm test

Alteration in the contour of the joint

A positive Tinel's sign

Inability to abduct the arm at the shoulder

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

D. Difficulty or inability to abduct (raise out to the side) the arm at the shoulder is a classic finding in rotator cuff injuries, particularly in cases of significant tears or severe inflammation. This limitation in shoulder movement can be due to pain, weakness, or mechanical impingement caused by the injured rotator cuff.

A. The drop arm test is a physical examination maneuver used to assess for rotator cuff tears. In a negative drop arm test, the patient is able to slowly lower their arm from an abducted position (out to the side) to their side without significant pain or weakness. A negative test suggests that there may not be a complete tear of the rotator cuff.

B. Alteration in the contour of the shoulder joint could indicate various shoulder pathologies, including rotator cuff injuries. However, it is a nonspecific finding and can occur with other shoulder conditions as well.

C. Tinel's sign is a test used to assess for nerve compression or irritation. While it can be positive in conditions such as carpal tunnel syndrome, it is not typically associated with rotator cuff injuries.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Venous thromboembolism (VTE), including deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE), is a significant concern following knee replacement surgery due to the increased risk of blood clot formation associated with immobility and surgery. Limited mobility can predispose the patient to stasis of blood flow, which increases the risk of VTE.

B. While fluid and electrolyte imbalance can occur postoperatively, especially if the patient experiences complications such as excessive bleeding or fluid shifts, limited mobility alone is less likely to directly lead to this complication as a priority.

C. Limited mobility can potentially impact surgical wound healing by delaying the resolution of edema, impairing circulation, and increasing the risk of infection. However, this complication may not be as immediate or life-threatening as others on the list.

D. Hypovolemic shock, characterized by inadequate tissue perfusion due to decreased circulating blood volume, is a severe complication that can result from significant blood loss. While bleeding can occur postoperatively, it is less common as a complication of knee replacement surgery, especially within the first few days.

A. Obtain a prescription to adjust the weight amount. B. Realign the client's position. C. Offer a muscle relaxant to the client. D. Administer an opioid analgesic.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

B. Muscle spasms can sometimes be triggered or exacerbated by poor positioning or pressure on certain areas of the body. Realigning the client's position will help relieve muscle spasms by reducing pressure or tension on the affected muscles.

A. Adjusting the weight amount in traction may help alleviate pain and muscle spasms by reducing tension on the affected limb. However, realignment should be done first.

C. Muscle relaxants can help alleviate muscle spasms and associated pain by reducing muscle tone and tension. However, realignment should be done first.

D. Opioid analgesics are potent pain relievers that can effectively manage moderate to severe pain, including pain from muscle spasms. However, that should not be the first intervention.

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A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client who reports shoulder pain. Which of the following findings by the nurse indicates rotator cuff injury?

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