A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client who reports shoulder pain. Which of the following findings by the nurse indicates rotator cuff injury?

Negative drop arm test

Alteration in the contour of the joint

A positive Tinel's sign

Inability to abduct the arm at the shoulder

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

D. Difficulty or inability to abduct (raise out to the side) the arm at the shoulder is a classic finding in rotator cuff injuries, particularly in cases of significant tears or severe inflammation. This limitation in shoulder movement can be due to pain, weakness, or mechanical impingement caused by the injured rotator cuff.

A. The drop arm test is a physical examination maneuver used to assess for rotator cuff tears. In a negative drop arm test, the patient is able to slowly lower their arm from an abducted position (out to the side) to their side without significant pain or weakness. A negative test suggests that there may not be a complete tear of the rotator cuff.

B. Alteration in the contour of the shoulder joint could indicate various shoulder pathologies, including rotator cuff injuries. However, it is a nonspecific finding and can occur with other shoulder conditions as well.

C. Tinel's sign is a test used to assess for nerve compression or irritation. While it can be positive in conditions such as carpal tunnel syndrome, it is not typically associated with rotator cuff injuries.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

B. Immediate-release morphine provides rapid pain relief and can effectively address breakthrough pain. The dose of 30 mg is reasonable given the severity of the pain.

A. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used to treat anxiety. While it may help with anxiety, it does not directly address the severe breakthrough pain experienced by the patient.

C. Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant used to treat neuropathic pain and depression. While it may help with chronic pain management, it is not appropriate for providing rapid relief for breakthrough pain or acute anxiety.

D. Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) commonly used for mild to moderate pain relief and inflammation. However, it is not typically used for severe breakthrough pain, especially in a patient already receiving opioid therapy.

A. A patient who had a tonsillectomy one week ago B. A patient who had a knee replacement surgery this morning C. A patient who had a hernia repair surgery yesterday D. A patient who had an appendectomy two days ago

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

D. Appendectomy is a common surgical procedure to remove the appendix and is considered a moderate surgical intervention. Early ambulation is generally encouraged for patients after appendectomy to prevent complications such as pneumonia, deep vein thrombosis, and ileus.

B. Knee replacement surgery is a major orthopedic procedure that requires early mobilization and rehabilitation to prevent complications such as blood clots, joint stiffness, and muscle weakness. However, the client needs more time before ambulation is initiated

A. Tonsillectomy is a relatively minor surgical procedure that typically does not significantly impact a patient's mobility or ability to ambulate. The patient who had a tonsillectomy one week ago is likely well-recovered and may not require immediate prioritization for ambulation.

C. Hernia repair surgery is typically considered a moderate surgical procedure. While early mobilization is generally beneficial for patients recovering from hernia repair surgery, it may not be as urgent as for patients undergoing major orthopedic surgeries like knee replacement.

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A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client who reports shoulder pain. Which of the following findings by the nurse indicates rotator cuff injury?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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