A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client who reports shoulder pain. Which of the following findings by the nurse indicates rotator cuff injury?

Negative drop arm test

Alteration in the contour of the joint

A positive Tinel's sign

Inability to abduct the arm at the shoulder

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

D. Difficulty or inability to abduct (raise out to the side) the arm at the shoulder is a classic finding in rotator cuff injuries, particularly in cases of significant tears or severe inflammation. This limitation in shoulder movement can be due to pain, weakness, or mechanical impingement caused by the injured rotator cuff.

A. The drop arm test is a physical examination maneuver used to assess for rotator cuff tears. In a negative drop arm test, the patient is able to slowly lower their arm from an abducted position (out to the side) to their side without significant pain or weakness. A negative test suggests that there may not be a complete tear of the rotator cuff.

B. Alteration in the contour of the shoulder joint could indicate various shoulder pathologies, including rotator cuff injuries. However, it is a nonspecific finding and can occur with other shoulder conditions as well.

C. Tinel's sign is a test used to assess for nerve compression or irritation. While it can be positive in conditions such as carpal tunnel syndrome, it is not typically associated with rotator cuff injuries.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

B. Muscle spasms can sometimes be triggered or exacerbated by poor positioning or pressure on certain areas of the body. Realigning the client's position will help relieve muscle spasms by reducing pressure or tension on the affected muscles.

A. Adjusting the weight amount in traction may help alleviate pain and muscle spasms by reducing tension on the affected limb. However, realignment should be done first.

C. Muscle relaxants can help alleviate muscle spasms and associated pain by reducing muscle tone and tension. However, realignment should be done first.

D. Opioid analgesics are potent pain relievers that can effectively manage moderate to severe pain, including pain from muscle spasms. However, that should not be the first intervention.

A. Take with grapefruit juice. B. Mix with chocolate milk C. Use a plastic container to mix. D. Take the medication between meals. E. None F. None

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

D. Cyclosporine is typically taken on an empty stomach, either 1 hour before or 2 hours after a meal, to improve absorption. Taking it with food, especially high-fat meals, can decrease absorption and effectiveness.

A. Grapefruit juice can interact with cyclosporine, leading to increased blood levels of the medication and potentially causing toxicity. Therefore, clients should be advised to avoid grapefruit juice when taking cyclosporine.

B. Mixing cyclosporine oral solution with chocolate milk or any other liquid should be done only if directed by the healthcare provider or as specified in the medication instructions.

C. Using a plastic container to mix the oral solution may reduce the risk of interaction compared to using metal or glass containers. However, it's important to follow the specific instructions provided with the medication.

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A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client who reports shoulder pain. Which of the following findings by the nurse indicates rotator cuff injury?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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