A patient who is receiving sustained-release morphine sulfate (MS Contin) every 12 hours for chronic pain experiences level 9 (0 to 10 scale) breakthrough pain and anxiety. Which action by the nurse is appropriate for treating this change in assessment?

Administer lorazepam (Ativan) 1 mg orally.

Offer immediate-release morphine 30 mg orally.

Suggest the patient take amitriptyline 10 mg orally.

Give Ibuprofen 400 to 800 mg orally.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

B. Immediate-release morphine provides rapid pain relief and can effectively address breakthrough pain. The dose of 30 mg is reasonable given the severity of the pain.

A. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used to treat anxiety. While it may help with anxiety, it does not directly address the severe breakthrough pain experienced by the patient.

C. Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant used to treat neuropathic pain and depression. While it may help with chronic pain management, it is not appropriate for providing rapid relief for breakthrough pain or acute anxiety.

D. Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) commonly used for mild to moderate pain relief and inflammation. However, it is not typically used for severe breakthrough pain, especially in a patient already receiving opioid therapy.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

D. Difficulty or inability to abduct (raise out to the side) the arm at the shoulder is a classic finding in rotator cuff injuries, particularly in cases of significant tears or severe inflammation. This limitation in shoulder movement can be due to pain, weakness, or mechanical impingement caused by the injured rotator cuff.

A. The drop arm test is a physical examination maneuver used to assess for rotator cuff tears. In a negative drop arm test, the patient is able to slowly lower their arm from an abducted position (out to the side) to their side without significant pain or weakness. A negative test suggests that there may not be a complete tear of the rotator cuff.

B. Alteration in the contour of the shoulder joint could indicate various shoulder pathologies, including rotator cuff injuries. However, it is a nonspecific finding and can occur with other shoulder conditions as well.

C. Tinel's sign is a test used to assess for nerve compression or irritation. While it can be positive in conditions such as carpal tunnel syndrome, it is not typically associated with rotator cuff injuries.

A. Teach the client which positions to avoid during PT. B. Identify the client's pain level and medicate if needed. C. Perform the client's morning care. D. Encourage the client to use full weight bearing.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

B. Assessing the client's pain level is crucial, especially before physical therapy, as pain can affect participation and compliance with therapy. If the client is experiencing pain, appropriate pain management measures should be implemented before PT to optimize participation and comfort.

A. The nurse should educate the client on proper body mechanics and positions to avoid during physical therapy to promote safe movement and prevent complications. However, this is not a priority.

C. While morning care is important for maintaining hygiene and comfort, it may not be the priority at this specific time, especially if the client is scheduled for physical therapy soon.

D. Encouraging full weight bearing immediately postoperative may not be appropriate, as the surgical site needs time to heal and regain strength.

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A patient who is receiving sustained-release morphine sulfate (MS Contin) every 12 hours for chronic pain experiences level 9 (0 to 10 scale) breakthrough pain and anxiety. Which action by the nurse is appropriate for treating this change in assessment?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client who reports shoulder pain. Which of the following findings by the nurse indicates rotator cuff injury?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who is 1-day postoperative following total hip arthroplasty. It is 0830 and the client is schedule for physical therapy (PT) at 0900. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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