A patient who is receiving sustained-release morphine sulfate (MS Contin) every 12 hours for chronic pain experiences level 9 (0 to 10 scale) breakthrough pain and anxiety. Which action by the nurse is appropriate for treating this change in assessment?
Administer lorazepam (Ativan) 1 mg orally.
Offer immediate-release morphine 30 mg orally.
Suggest the patient take amitriptyline 10 mg orally.
Give Ibuprofen 400 to 800 mg orally.
The Correct Answer is B
B. Immediate-release morphine provides rapid pain relief and can effectively address breakthrough pain. The dose of 30 mg is reasonable given the severity of the pain.
A. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used to treat anxiety. While it may help with anxiety, it does not directly address the severe breakthrough pain experienced by the patient.
C. Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant used to treat neuropathic pain and depression. While it may help with chronic pain management, it is not appropriate for providing rapid relief for breakthrough pain or acute anxiety.
D. Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) commonly used for mild to moderate pain relief and inflammation. However, it is not typically used for severe breakthrough pain, especially in a patient already receiving opioid therapy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["C","D"]
Explanation
C. Education about the benefits of pain management, including how analgesics can improve postoperative activity levels by reducing pain and discomfort, helps to promote the patient's understanding and engagement in their own care.
D. Nurses should closely monitor the patient for both therapeutic effects and adverse effects of opioid administration when using PCA or any other opioid analgesic. Regular assessment allows for prompt identification and management of any complications or side effects.
A. Patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) is designed for the patient to self-administer pain medication according to their own needs and pain levels.
B. Opioid dosing should be individualized based on the patient's pain level and response to the medication. Some patients may require ongoing opioid analgesia for more than two days postoperatively, while others may be able to transition to alternative pain management strategies sooner.
E. Concerns about opioid addiction should not be assumed in all patients, especially those who have never received opioids before. Instead, the focus should be on assessing the patient's pain levels, response to pain medication, and any adverse effects.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
D. Petechiae, which are small red or purple spots caused by bleeding under the skin, are a classic manifestation of fat embolism syndrome. They typically appear on the upper chest, axilla (armpit), and conjunctiva of the eyes. Petechiae result from the occlusion of small blood vessels by fat globules, leading to microvascular bleeding.
A Paresthesia distal to the fracture site is not a typical manifestation of fat embolism syndrome. Instead, paresthesia may suggest nerve compression or injury related to the fracture itself rather than fat emboli.
B Fever is not a specific manifestation of fat embolism syndrome. While fever can occur with various types of infections or inflammatory conditions, it is not a hallmark symptom of fat embolism.
C Swelling of the calf can occur with conditions such as deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is a potential complication of lower limb fractures. However, it is not a typical manifestation of fat embolism syndrome.
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