A patient who is receiving sustained-release morphine sulfate (MS Contin) every 12 hours for chronic pain experiences level 9 (0 to 10 scale) breakthrough pain and anxiety. Which action by the nurse is appropriate for treating this change in assessment?
Administer lorazepam (Ativan) 1 mg orally.
Offer immediate-release morphine 30 mg orally.
Suggest the patient take amitriptyline 10 mg orally.
Give Ibuprofen 400 to 800 mg orally.
The Correct Answer is B
B. Immediate-release morphine provides rapid pain relief and can effectively address breakthrough pain. The dose of 30 mg is reasonable given the severity of the pain.
A. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used to treat anxiety. While it may help with anxiety, it does not directly address the severe breakthrough pain experienced by the patient.
C. Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant used to treat neuropathic pain and depression. While it may help with chronic pain management, it is not appropriate for providing rapid relief for breakthrough pain or acute anxiety.
D. Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) commonly used for mild to moderate pain relief and inflammation. However, it is not typically used for severe breakthrough pain, especially in a patient already receiving opioid therapy.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
C. Maintaining immobilization and alignment of the fractured bone is essential for allowing the bone to heal properly. Immobilization prevents further injury and displacement of the fracture fragments, while proper alignment ensures optimal bone healing and functional outcomes.
A. Optimal nutrition and hydration may not be the highest priority compared to other interventions that directly address the fracture management and functional healing.
B. Providing relief from pain and discomfort is crucial for the client's comfort and well-being, but it may not be the highest priority in achieving functional healing.
D. Promoting independence in activities of daily living is important for the client's overall well-being and quality of life, but it may not be the highest priority immediately after a fracture.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
B. Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant that is often used in low doses to treat neuropathic pain, including diabetic neuropathy. It can help relieve burning, shooting, or stabbing pain often associated with this condition.
A. Naproxen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) commonly used for relieving pain and inflammation associated with conditions like arthritis and musculoskeletal injuries. However, it is not typically used as a first-line treatment for neuropathic pain.
C. Celecoxib is a selective COX-2 inhibitor NSAID primarily used for its anti-inflammatory properties and pain relief in conditions like arthritis. While it may help with inflammation-associated pain, it is not specifically indicated for neuropathic pain.
D. While it may provide some relief, opioids are generally not recommended as first-line treatment for neuropathic pain due to their potential for dependence, tolerance, and other side effects.
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