A patient who is receiving sustained-release morphine sulfate (MS Contin) every 12 hours for chronic pain experiences level 9 (0 to 10 scale) breakthrough pain and anxiety. Which action by the nurse is appropriate for treating this change in assessment?
Administer lorazepam (Ativan) 1 mg orally.
Offer immediate-release morphine 30 mg orally.
Suggest the patient take amitriptyline 10 mg orally.
Give Ibuprofen 400 to 800 mg orally.
The Correct Answer is B
B. Immediate-release morphine provides rapid pain relief and can effectively address breakthrough pain. The dose of 30 mg is reasonable given the severity of the pain.
A. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used to treat anxiety. While it may help with anxiety, it does not directly address the severe breakthrough pain experienced by the patient.
C. Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant used to treat neuropathic pain and depression. While it may help with chronic pain management, it is not appropriate for providing rapid relief for breakthrough pain or acute anxiety.
D. Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) commonly used for mild to moderate pain relief and inflammation. However, it is not typically used for severe breakthrough pain, especially in a patient already receiving opioid therapy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
D. Benzodiazepines are a class of medications commonly used to treat anxiety, insomnia, seizures, and muscle spasms. Mazepam is a benzodiazepine medication often prescribed for anxiety disorders and short-term relief of anxiety symptoms.
A. Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) used to relieve pain, reduce inflammation, and lower fever.
B. Morphine is an opioid analgesic used to treat moderate to severe pain.
C. Acetaminophen is a pain reliever and fever reducer that is not classified as a benzodiazepine.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
D. Petechiae, which are small red or purple spots caused by bleeding under the skin, are a classic manifestation of fat embolism syndrome. They typically appear on the upper chest, axilla (armpit), and conjunctiva of the eyes. Petechiae result from the occlusion of small blood vessels by fat globules, leading to microvascular bleeding.
A Paresthesia distal to the fracture site is not a typical manifestation of fat embolism syndrome. Instead, paresthesia may suggest nerve compression or injury related to the fracture itself rather than fat emboli.
B Fever is not a specific manifestation of fat embolism syndrome. While fever can occur with various types of infections or inflammatory conditions, it is not a hallmark symptom of fat embolism.
C Swelling of the calf can occur with conditions such as deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is a potential complication of lower limb fractures. However, it is not a typical manifestation of fat embolism syndrome.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.