A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is at 34 weeks of gestation and has pre-term labor.
Which of the following findings is a risk factor for pre-term labor?
History of urinary tract infections
Maternal age of 25 years
Singleton pregnancy
Cervical length of 3 cm
The Correct Answer is A
History of urinary tract infections. According to the Mayo Clinic, untreated vaginal infections, such as urinary tract infections or sexually transmitted infections, are risk factors for preterm labor.
These infections can cause inflammation and irritation of the cervix, which can trigger contractions and cervical dilation.
Choice B is wrong because maternal age of 25 years is not a risk factor for preterm labor. In fact, women younger than 18 or older than 35 are more likely to have a preterm delivery.
Choice C is wrong because singleton pregnancy is not a risk factor for preterm labor. On the contrary, being pregnant with twins, triplets, or more (called "multiple gestations") is associated with a higher risk of preterm labor and birth.
Choice D is wrong because cervical length of 3 cm is not a risk factor for preterm labor. A short cervix (less than 2.5 cm) or a cervix that shortens in the second trimester instead of the third trimester is a risk factor for preterm delivery. A normal cervical length ranges from 3 to 5 cm during pregnancy.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Report any increase in vaginal discharge to the provider.This is because an increase in vaginal discharge can indicate an infection, which can trigger preterm labor or cause complications for the mother and the baby.
Choice A is wrong because sexual intercourse is not contraindicated for women who have preterm labor that was successfully stopped with tocolytic therapy, unless they have other risk factors such as placenta previa or ruptured membranes.
Choice B is wrong because drinking at least 3 L of fluids per day is not necessary for women who have preterm labor that was successfully stopped with tocolytic therapy, unless they have dehydration or oligohydramnios.
Choice D is wrong because pelvic floor exercises are not recommended for women who have preterm labor that was successfully stopped with tocolytic therapy, as they can increase uterine activity and cause contractions.
Tocolytic therapy is the use of drugs to delay delivery for a short time (up to 48 hours) if a woman begins labor too early in her pregnancy.
The purpose of tocolytic therapy is to allow time for the administration of corticosteroids or other medicine.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Assess the client’s vital signs.
The nurse should first assess the client’s vital signs to determine the severity of the situation and identify any signs of infection, bleeding, or shock.
The nurse should also monitor the fetal heart rate to assess fetal well-being.
Choice B is wrong because a sterile vaginal exam is not indicated for a client who reports lower abdominal cramping and may increase the risk of infection or rupture of membranes.
Choice C is wrong because administering tocolytic medication is not the first action the nurse should take.
Tocolytic medication may be used to inhibit uterine contractions and prolong pregnancy, but only after assessing the client’s and fetus’s condition and obtaining a prescription from the provider.
Choice D is wrong because monitoring the fetal heart rate is not the first action the nurse should take.
Monitoring the fetal heart rate is important to assess fetal well-being, but it does not take priority over assessing the client’s vital signs.
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