A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is at 34 weeks of gestation and has pre-term labor.
Which of the following findings is a risk factor for pre-term labor?
History of urinary tract infections
Maternal age of 25 years
Singleton pregnancy
Cervical length of 3 cm
The Correct Answer is A
History of urinary tract infections. According to the Mayo Clinic, untreated vaginal infections, such as urinary tract infections or sexually transmitted infections, are risk factors for preterm labor.
These infections can cause inflammation and irritation of the cervix, which can trigger contractions and cervical dilation.
Choice B is wrong because maternal age of 25 years is not a risk factor for preterm labor. In fact, women younger than 18 or older than 35 are more likely to have a preterm delivery.
Choice C is wrong because singleton pregnancy is not a risk factor for preterm labor. On the contrary, being pregnant with twins, triplets, or more (called "multiple gestations") is associated with a higher risk of preterm labor and birth.
Choice D is wrong because cervical length of 3 cm is not a risk factor for preterm labor. A short cervix (less than 2.5 cm) or a cervix that shortens in the second trimester instead of the third trimester is a risk factor for preterm delivery. A normal cervical length ranges from 3 to 5 cm during pregnancy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that helps close the ductus arteriosus, a blood vessel connecting two arteries of the heart (aorta and pulmonary artery) in fetus.This drug is effective only among premature babies.
Choice B.Prostaglandin E1 is wrong because it is used to keep the ductus arteriosus open in some congenital heart defects that require surgery.
Choice C.Furosemide is wrong because it is a diuretic that reduces fluid retention and blood pressure, but does not affect the ductus arteriosus.
Choice D.Digoxin is wrong because it is a cardiac glycoside that strengthens the heart muscle contractions and regulates the heart rhythm, but does not affect the ductus arteriosus.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg.This is because terbutaline can causeelevated blood pressureas a side effect.
The nurse should report this finding to the provider as it may indicate hypertension or a hypertensive crisis.
Choice A is wrong because a heart rate of 110/min is not abnormal for a person who has received terbutaline.Terbutaline can causefast or pounding heartbeatsas a common side effect.
Choice C is wrong because a blood glucose of 90 mg/dL is within the normal range of 70-130 mg/dL before meals.Terbutaline can causetransient hyperglycemia(high blood sugar) as a serious side effect, but this is not the case here.
Choice D is wrong because a temperature of 37°C (98.6°F) is normal for a human being.Terbutaline does not cause fever or hypothermia as a side effect.
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