A nurse is reviewing the medication history of a client who is in pre-term labor and has a history of peptic ulcer disease.
The nurse should recognize that which of the following medications is contraindicated for this client?
Magnesium sulfate
Betamethasone
Indomethacin
Terbutaline
The Correct Answer is C
Indomethacin is contraindicated for this client because it is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can irritate or inflame the lining of the stomach and small intestine. This can worsen the client’s peptic ulcer disease, which is a condition where open sores develop on the inner surface of the stomach or small intestine due to acid erosion.
Indomethacin can also interact with other medications that the client may be taking for pre-term labor or peptic ulcer disease.
Choice A is wrong because magnesium sulfate is not contraindicated for this client. It is a medication that can relax the smooth muscles of the uterus and prevent pre-term labor contractions.
Choice B is wrong because betamethasone is not contraindicated for this client. It is a corticosteroid that can help mature the fetal lungs and reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in pre-term infants.
Choice D is wrong because terbutaline is not contraindicated for this client.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A white blood cell count of 12,000/mm3 indicates an infection that can trigger pre-term labor.The normal range for white blood cell count in pregnancy is 5.7-15.0×10 9 /L, which is equivalent to 5,700-15,000/mm3.
A count above this range suggests an inflammatory response to an infection.
Choice B is wrong because a hemoglobin level of 11 g/dL is within the normal range for pregnancy, which is 10-14 g/dL.
Choice C is wrong because a platelet count of 250,000/mm3 is within the normal range for pregnancy, which is 150,000-400,000/mm3.
Choice D is wrong because a blood glucose level of 90 mg/dL is within the normal range for pregnancy, which is 70-110 mg/dL.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Assess fetal heart rate and activity.
The nurse should identify that a client who reports a sudden gush of fluid from her vagina is at risk forpremature rupture of membranes (PROM), which can lead toinfection,cord prolapse, andfetal distress.Therefore, the priority action is to assess the fetal heart rate and activity to monitor for signs of hypoxia or distress.
Choice B is wrong because performing a nitrazine test on the fluid is not the first action.A nitrazine test can confirm the presence of amniotic fluid by detecting its alkaline pH, but it is not as urgent as assessing the fetal well-being.
Choice C is wrong because administering oxytocin (Pitocin) IV infusion is contraindicated in this situation.Oxytocin is used to induce or augment labor, but it can causeuterine hyperstimulation,fetal distress, andplacental abruptionif given to a client who has PROM.
Choice D is wrong because placing the client in Trendelenburg position is not recommended for a client who has PROM.Trendelenburg position can increase the risk ofcord prolapseandaspirationin this situation.
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