A nurse is reviewing the medication history of a client who is in pre-term labor and has a history of peptic ulcer disease.
The nurse should recognize that which of the following medications is contraindicated for this client?
Magnesium sulfate
Betamethasone
Indomethacin
Terbutaline
The Correct Answer is C
Indomethacin is contraindicated for this client because it is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can irritate or inflame the lining of the stomach and small intestine. This can worsen the client’s peptic ulcer disease, which is a condition where open sores develop on the inner surface of the stomach or small intestine due to acid erosion.
Indomethacin can also interact with other medications that the client may be taking for pre-term labor or peptic ulcer disease.
Choice A is wrong because magnesium sulfate is not contraindicated for this client. It is a medication that can relax the smooth muscles of the uterus and prevent pre-term labor contractions.
Choice B is wrong because betamethasone is not contraindicated for this client. It is a corticosteroid that can help mature the fetal lungs and reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in pre-term infants.
Choice D is wrong because terbutaline is not contraindicated for this client.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
According to the search results, magnesium sulfate can have a negative effect on the fetal heart rate (FHR) by lowering the baseline, decreasing the variability, and reducing the reactivity or acceleration pattern.Absent variability means that there is no fluctuation in the FHR and it indicates fetal hypoxia or acidosis.
This is a potential adverse effect of magnesium sulfate on the fetus and requires immediate intervention.
Choice A.Accelerations is wrong because accelerations are transient increases in the FHR that indicate fetal well-being.They are not affected by magnesium sulfate.
Choice B.Early decelerations is wrong because early decelerations are decreases in the FHR that occur with uterine contractions and are caused by fetal head compression.They are benign and do not indicate fetal distress.They are not associated with magnesium sulfate.
Choice C.Variable decelerations is wrong because variable decelerations are abrupt decreases in the FHR that vary in shape, duration, and timing and are caused by umbilical cord compression.
They may or may not indicate fetal compromise.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Assess fetal heart rate and activity.
The nurse should identify that a client who reports a sudden gush of fluid from her vagina is at risk forpremature rupture of membranes (PROM), which can lead toinfection,cord prolapse, andfetal distress.Therefore, the priority action is to assess the fetal heart rate and activity to monitor for signs of hypoxia or distress.
Choice B is wrong because performing a nitrazine test on the fluid is not the first action.A nitrazine test can confirm the presence of amniotic fluid by detecting its alkaline pH, but it is not as urgent as assessing the fetal well-being.
Choice C is wrong because administering oxytocin (Pitocin) IV infusion is contraindicated in this situation.Oxytocin is used to induce or augment labor, but it can causeuterine hyperstimulation,fetal distress, andplacental abruptionif given to a client who has PROM.
Choice D is wrong because placing the client in Trendelenburg position is not recommended for a client who has PROM.Trendelenburg position can increase the risk ofcord prolapseandaspirationin this situation.
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