A nurse is caring for a client who is in pre-term labor.
Which of the following maternal complications is most likely to occur due to prolonged bed rest?
Thromboembolism
Placental abruption
Uterine atony
Infection
The Correct Answer is A
Thromboembolism.
Prolonged bed rest increases the risk of venous stasis and blood clot formation in the lower extremities, which can lead to pulmonary embolism if the clot dislodges and travels to the lungs.
This is a life-threatening complication that requires immediate treatment.
Choice B. Placental abruption is wrong because it is not caused by bed rest, but by trauma, hypertension, cocaine use, or other factors that can cause the placenta to separate from the uterine wall.
Choice C. Uterine atony is wrong because it is not caused by bed rest, but by overdistension of the uterus, prolonged labor, infection, or other factors that can impair the contraction of the uterine muscles after delivery.
Choice D. Infection is wrong because it is not caused by bed rest, but by poor hygiene, invasive procedures, or other factors that can introduce microorganisms into the reproductive tract.
Normal ranges for maternal heart rate are 60-100 beats per minute and blood pressure are 110-140/60-90 mm Hg.
Normal range for fetal heart rate is 110-160 beats per minute.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Assess fetal heart rate and activity.
The nurse should identify that a client who reports a sudden gush of fluid from her vagina is at risk forpremature rupture of membranes (PROM), which can lead toinfection,cord prolapse, andfetal distress.Therefore, the priority action is to assess the fetal heart rate and activity to monitor for signs of hypoxia or distress.
Choice B is wrong because performing a nitrazine test on the fluid is not the first action.A nitrazine test can confirm the presence of amniotic fluid by detecting its alkaline pH, but it is not as urgent as assessing the fetal well-being.
Choice C is wrong because administering oxytocin (Pitocin) IV infusion is contraindicated in this situation.Oxytocin is used to induce or augment labor, but it can causeuterine hyperstimulation,fetal distress, andplacental abruptionif given to a client who has PROM.
Choice D is wrong because placing the client in Trendelenburg position is not recommended for a client who has PROM.Trendelenburg position can increase the risk ofcord prolapseandaspirationin this situation.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker that is used to relax uterine contractions and postpone preterm labor.However, it can also lower blood pressure and cause side effects such as headache, dizziness, flushing, and palpitations.Therefore, it should be avoided in clients who have cardiac disease or other conditions that affect the heart function.
Choice A is wrong because asthma is not a contraindication for nifedipine.Nifedipine does not affect the airways or cause bronchospasm.
Choice B is wrong because diabetes mellitus is not a contraindication for nifedipine.Nifedipine does not affect blood glucose levels or insulin secretion.
Choice C is wrong because hypertension is not a contraindication for nifedipine.In fact, nifedipine can be used to treat high blood pressure as well as preterm labor.However, blood pressure should be monitored closely during nifedipine therapy to avoid hypotension.
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