A nurse is caring for a client who is in pre-term labor.

Which of the following maternal complications is most likely to occur due to prolonged bed rest?

Thromboembolism

Placental abruption

Uterine atony

Infection

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Thromboembolism.

Prolonged bed rest increases the risk of venous stasis and blood clot formation in the lower extremities, which can lead to pulmonary embolism if the clot dislodges and travels to the lungs.

This is a life-threatening complication that requires immediate treatment.

Choice B. Placental abruption is wrong because it is not caused by bed rest, but by trauma, hypertension, cocaine use, or other factors that can cause the placenta to separate from the uterine wall.

Choice C. Uterine atony is wrong because it is not caused by bed rest, but by overdistension of the uterus, prolonged labor, infection, or other factors that can impair the contraction of the uterine muscles after delivery.

Choice D. Infection is wrong because it is not caused by bed rest, but by poor hygiene, invasive procedures, or other factors that can introduce microorganisms into the reproductive tract.

Normal ranges for maternal heart rate are 60-100 beats per minute and blood pressure are 110-140/60-90 mm Hg.

Normal range for fetal heart rate is 110-160 beats per minute.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg.This is because terbutaline can causeelevated blood pressureas a side effect.

The nurse should report this finding to the provider as it may indicate hypertension or a hypertensive crisis.

Choice A is wrong because a heart rate of 110/min is not abnormal for a person who has received terbutaline.Terbutaline can causefast or pounding heartbeatsas a common side effect.

Choice C is wrong because a blood glucose of 90 mg/dL is within the normal range of 70-130 mg/dL before meals.Terbutaline can causetransient hyperglycemia(high blood sugar) as a serious side effect, but this is not the case here.

Choice D is wrong because a temperature of 37°C (98.6°F) is normal for a human being.Terbutaline does not cause fever or hypothermia as a side effect.

A. Administer IV fluids B. Obtain a urine specimen C. Assess fetal heart rate D. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

This is because assessing fetal heart rate is the most important action to take first when a client has prelabor rupture of membranes (PROM) at 34 weeks of gestation and oligohydramnios.Fetal heart rate can indicate fetal well-being, distress, or infection.Oligohydramnios can increase the risk of umbilical cord compression and fetal hypoxia.

Choice A is wrong because administering IV fluids is not the first priority in this situation.IV fluids may be given to prevent dehydration, enhance uterine blood flow, or augment labor, but they are not as urgent as assessing fetal heart rate.

Choice B is wrong because obtaining a urine specimen is not the first priority in this situation.A urine specimen may be obtained to check for infection, proteinuria, or glucose levels, but they are not as urgent as assessing fetal heart rate.

Choice D is wrong because inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is not the first priority in this situation.An indwelling urinary catheter may be inserted to monitor fluid balance, prevent bladder distension, or reduce the risk of infection, but they are not as urgent as assessing fetal heart rate.

Normal ranges for fetal heart rate are 110 to 160 beats per minute.Oligohydramnios is defined as an amniotic fluid index of less than 5 cm.

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A nurse is caring for a client who is in pre-term labor. Which of the following maternal complications is most likely to occur due to prolonged bed rest?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is assessing a client who is in pre-term labor and has received one dose of terbutaline subcutaneously. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse is admitting a client who is in pre-term labor at 34 weeks of gestation and has ruptured membranes and oligohydramnios. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is preparing to administer betamethasone (Celestone) to a client who is at 31 weeks of gestation and has pre-term labor. What is the purpose of this medication?

A nurse is evaluating the fetal heart rate tracing of a client who is in pre-term labor and receiving magnesium sulfate. The nurse should identify that which of the following patterns indicates a potential adverse effect of the medication on the fetus?

A nurse is assessing a pre-term newborn who was born at 28 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings indicates a possible diagnosis of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)?

A client in pre-term labor is being discharged from the hospital. What should the nurse include in the client's discharge plan?

A nurse is teaching a client who is pregnant about the risk factors for pre-term labor. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

A nurse is teaching a client who is at 27 weeks of gestation and has pre-term labor about the signs and symptoms of true labor versus false labor. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is at 29 weeks of gestation and has pre-term labor. Which of the following results indicates an infection that can trigger pre-term labor?

A nurse is reviewing the medication history of a client who is in pre-term labor and has a history of peptic ulcer disease. The nurse should recognize that which of the following medications is contraindicated for this client?

A nurse is caring for a client who is in pre-term labor.

Which of the following maternal complications is most likely to occur due to prolonged bed rest?