A nurse is caring for a client who is in pre-term labor.

Which of the following maternal complications is most likely to occur due to prolonged bed rest?

Thromboembolism

Placental abruption

Uterine atony

Infection

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Thromboembolism.

Prolonged bed rest increases the risk of venous stasis and blood clot formation in the lower extremities, which can lead to pulmonary embolism if the clot dislodges and travels to the lungs.

This is a life-threatening complication that requires immediate treatment.

Choice B. Placental abruption is wrong because it is not caused by bed rest, but by trauma, hypertension, cocaine use, or other factors that can cause the placenta to separate from the uterine wall.

Choice C. Uterine atony is wrong because it is not caused by bed rest, but by overdistension of the uterus, prolonged labor, infection, or other factors that can impair the contraction of the uterine muscles after delivery.

Choice D. Infection is wrong because it is not caused by bed rest, but by poor hygiene, invasive procedures, or other factors that can introduce microorganisms into the reproductive tract.

Normal ranges for maternal heart rate are 60-100 beats per minute and blood pressure are 110-140/60-90 mm Hg.

Normal range for fetal heart rate is 110-160 beats per minute.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

To promote fetal lung maturity.Betamethasone (Celestone) is a type of corticosteroid that can help reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome and other complications in preterm infants by accelerating the development of their lungs.It is recommended for pregnant women between 24 0/7 weeks and 36 6/7 weeks of gestation who are at risk of preterm delivery within 7 days.

Choice A is wrong because betamethasone does not suppress uterine contractions.

It has no effect on the cause of preterm labor.

Choice B is wrong because betamethasone does not prevent infection.

It may actually increase the risk of infection by suppressing the immune system.

Choice D is wrong because betamethasone does not reduce maternal blood pressure.

It may actually cause hypertension and hyperglycemia as side effects.

A. Administer magnesium sulfate intravenously B. Prepare for an emergency cesarean section C. Place the client in Trendelenburg position D. Administer antibiotics prophylactically

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Prepare for an emergency cesarean section.This is because the client has pre-term labor that has not responded to tocolytic therapy, which are drugs that are used to delay delivery for a short time.The client’s cervix is dilated to 4 cm and she is experiencing regular contractions every 3 minutes, which are signs of active labor.The baby is at 33 weeks of gestation, which is premature and may have complications such as respiratory distress syndrome or bleeding in the brain.

Therefore, the client needs an emergency cesarean section to deliver the baby as soon as possible and prevent further risks.

Choice A is wrong because administering magnesium sulfate intravenously is a type of tocolytic therapy that the client has already failed.Magnesium sulfate may also have side effects such as nausea, vomiting, flushing, headache, and muscle weakness.

Choice C is wrong because placing the client in Trendelenburg position, which is lying on the back with the feet elevated above the head, is not recommended for preterm labor.This position may increase the risk of aspiration, decrease cardiac output, and impair gas exchange.

Choice D is wrong because administering antibiotics prophylactically is not indicated for preterm labor unless there is evidence of infection in the uterus or membranes.

Antibiotics may also cause allergic reactions or bacterial resistance

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A nurse is caring for a client who is in pre-term labor. Which of the following maternal complications is most likely to occur due to prolonged bed rest?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is preparing to administer betamethasone (Celestone) to a client who is at 31 weeks of gestation and has pre-term labor. What is the purpose of this medication?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse is teaching a client who is pregnant about the risk factors for pre-term labor. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

A nurse is admitting a client who is in pre-term labor at 34 weeks of gestation and has ruptured membranes and oligohydramnios. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

A nurse is evaluating the understanding of a client who is at risk for pre-term labor and has been instructed to perform daily home uterine activity monitoring (HUAM). Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

A nurse is evaluating a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and has pre-term labor. Which of the following findings indicates that the client’s condition is improving?

A nurse is teaching a client who is at 27 weeks of gestation and has pre-term labor about the signs and symptoms of true labor versus false labor. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

A nurse is providing education to a client who had pre-term labor and was prescribed indomethacin. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

A nurse is reviewing the ultrasound report of a client who is at 31 weeks of gestation and has pre-term labor. Which of the following findings indicates oligohydramnios?

A nurse is assessing a client who is in pre-term labor and has received one dose of terbutaline subcutaneously. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

A nurse is caring for a client who is in pre-term labor.

Which of the following maternal complications is most likely to occur due to prolonged bed rest?