A nurse is planning discharge teaching for a client who is at 25 weeks of gestation and has pre-term labor that was successfully stopped with tocolytic therapy.
Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
Avoid sexual intercourse until term
Drink at least 3 L of fluids per day
Report any increase in vaginal discharge to the provider
Perform pelvic floor exercises daily
The Correct Answer is C
Report any increase in vaginal discharge to the provider. This is because an increase in vaginal discharge can indicate an infection, which can trigger preterm labor or cause complications for the mother and the baby.
Choice A is wrong because sexual intercourse is not contraindicated for women who have preterm labor that was successfully stopped with tocolytic therapy, unless they have other risk factors such as placenta previa or ruptured membranes.
Choice B is wrong because drinking at least 3 L of fluids per day is not necessary for women who have preterm labor that was successfully stopped with tocolytic therapy, unless they have dehydration or oligohydramnios.
Choice D is wrong because pelvic floor exercises are not recommended for women who have preterm labor that was successfully stopped with tocolytic therapy, as they can increase uterine activity and cause contractions.
Tocolytic therapy is the use of drugs to delay delivery for a short time (up to 48 hours) if a woman begins labor too early in her pregnancy.
The purpose of tocolytic therapy is to allow time for the administration of corticosteroids or other medicine.
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Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Prepare for an emergency cesarean section.This is because the client has pre-term labor that has not responded to tocolytic therapy, which are drugs that are used to delay delivery for a short time.The client’s cervix is dilated to 4 cm and she is experiencing regular contractions every 3 minutes, which are signs of active labor.The baby is at 33 weeks of gestation, which is premature and may have complications such as respiratory distress syndrome or bleeding in the brain.
Therefore, the client needs an emergency cesarean section to deliver the baby as soon as possible and prevent further risks.
Choice A is wrong because administering magnesium sulfate intravenously is a type of tocolytic therapy that the client has already failed.Magnesium sulfate may also have side effects such as nausea, vomiting, flushing, headache, and muscle weakness.
Choice C is wrong because placing the client in Trendelenburg position, which is lying on the back with the feet elevated above the head, is not recommended for preterm labor.This position may increase the risk of aspiration, decrease cardiac output, and impair gas exchange.
Choice D is wrong because administering antibiotics prophylactically is not indicated for preterm labor unless there is evidence of infection in the uterus or membranes.
Antibiotics may also cause allergic reactions or bacterial resistance
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that helps close the ductus arteriosus, a blood vessel connecting two arteries of the heart (aorta and pulmonary artery) in fetus.This drug is effective only among premature babies.
Choice B.Prostaglandin E1 is wrong because it is used to keep the ductus arteriosus open in some congenital heart defects that require surgery.
Choice C.Furosemide is wrong because it is a diuretic that reduces fluid retention and blood pressure, but does not affect the ductus arteriosus.
Choice D.Digoxin is wrong because it is a cardiac glycoside that strengthens the heart muscle contractions and regulates the heart rhythm, but does not affect the ductus arteriosus.
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