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A nurse is assessing a client for pre-term labor.

Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate being ordered for this client?

A.

Ultrasound

B.

Blood count

C.

Urine culture

D.

Amniocentesis

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Ultrasound.

An ultrasound can help determine the gestational age, fetal growth, placental location, and amniotic fluid volume of the fetus.

These factors can affect the risk of pre-term labor and delivery.

An ultrasound can also detect cervical changes that may indicate pre-term labor.

Choice B is wrong because a blood count is not specific for pre-term labor.

It may be done to check for anemia, infection, or other conditions that may affect the pregnancy, but it does not directly assess the risk of pre-term labor.

Choice C is wrong because a urine culture is not specific for pre-term labor.

It may be done to check for urinary tract infection, which can cause pre-term labor, but it does not directly assess the risk of pre-term labor.

Choice D is wrong because an amniocentesis is not usually done for pre-term labor.

It may be done to check for fetal lung maturity, chromosomal abnormalities, or infections, but it is an invasive procedure that carries some risks and complications.

It does not directly assess the risk of pre-term labor.


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Related Questions

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Infection on speculum examination.

Infection is a major cause of preterm labor and can lead to serious complications for the mother and the fetus.

Infection can be detected by a speculum examination that shows signs of inflammation, such as erythema, edema, discharge, or odor.

Infection can also be confirmed by laboratory tests, such as culture, gram stain, or polymerase chain reaction.Infection should be treated promptly with antibiotics and other supportive measures.

Choice B. Bleeding on speculum examination is wrong because bleeding is not a direct cause of preterm labor, but rather a sign of other conditions that may increase the risk of preterm labor, such as placenta previa, placental abruption, or cervical trauma.Bleeding should be evaluated further to determine the source and severity of the hemorrhage and to manage any complications.

Choice C. Positive fetal fibronectin test (FFN) is wrong because a positive FFN test indicates the presence of fetal fibronectin in the cervical or vaginal secretions, which is a marker of increased risk of preterm labor, but not a definitive marker.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that helps close the ductus arteriosus, a blood vessel connecting two arteries of the heart (aorta and pulmonary artery) in fetus.This drug is effective only among premature babies.

Choice B.Prostaglandin E1 is wrong because it is used to keep the ductus arteriosus open in some congenital heart defects that require surgery.

Choice C.Furosemide is wrong because it is a diuretic that reduces fluid retention and blood pressure, but does not affect the ductus arteriosus.

Choice D.Digoxin is wrong because it is a cardiac glycoside that strengthens the heart muscle contractions and regulates the heart rhythm, but does not affect the ductus arteriosus.

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