A nurse is preparing to administer betamethasone (Celestone) to a client who is at 31 weeks of gestation and has pre-term labor.
What is the purpose of this medication?
To suppress uterine contractions
To prevent infection
To promote fetal lung maturity
To reduce maternal blood pressure
The Correct Answer is C
To promote fetal lung maturity. Betamethasone (Celestone) is a type of corticosteroid that can help reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome and other complications in preterm infants by accelerating the development of their lungs. It is recommended for pregnant women between 24 0/7 weeks and 36 6/7 weeks of gestation who are at risk of preterm delivery within 7 days.
Choice A is wrong because betamethasone does not suppress uterine contractions.
It has no effect on the cause of preterm labor.
Choice B is wrong because betamethasone does not prevent infection.
It may actually increase the risk of infection by suppressing the immune system.
Choice D is wrong because betamethasone does not reduce maternal blood pressure.
It may actually cause hypertension and hyperglycemia as side effects.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Assess fetal heart rate and activity.
The nurse should identify that a client who reports a sudden gush of fluid from her vagina is at risk forpremature rupture of membranes (PROM), which can lead toinfection,cord prolapse, andfetal distress.Therefore, the priority action is to assess the fetal heart rate and activity to monitor for signs of hypoxia or distress.
Choice B is wrong because performing a nitrazine test on the fluid is not the first action.A nitrazine test can confirm the presence of amniotic fluid by detecting its alkaline pH, but it is not as urgent as assessing the fetal well-being.
Choice C is wrong because administering oxytocin (Pitocin) IV infusion is contraindicated in this situation.Oxytocin is used to induce or augment labor, but it can causeuterine hyperstimulation,fetal distress, andplacental abruptionif given to a client who has PROM.
Choice D is wrong because placing the client in Trendelenburg position is not recommended for a client who has PROM.Trendelenburg position can increase the risk ofcord prolapseandaspirationin this situation.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
All of the above.
Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) is a condition that affects preterm newborns who have immature lungs and lack sufficient surfactant.
Surfactant is a substance that helps keep the alveoli open and prevents them from collapsing.
Without enough surfactant, the newborn has difficulty breathing and may develop hypoxia and acidosis.
Choice A is wrong because tachypnea and grunting are signs of respiratory distress, but they are not specific to RDS.
They can also be caused by other conditions such as transient tachypnea of the newborn, pneumonia, or congenital heart defects.
Choice B is wrong because bradycardia and cyanosis are also signs of respiratory distress, but they are not specific to RDS.
They can also be caused by other conditions such as hypothermia, hypoglycemia, or sepsis.
Choice C is wrong because apnea and nasal flaring are also signs of respiratory distress, but they are not specific to RDS.
They can also be caused by other conditions such as intracranial ...
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