A client at 30 weeks of gestation is experiencing pre-term labor.

Which intervention should the nurse anticipate to suppress uterine contractions?

Administering intravenous fluids

Administering tocolytics

Administering corticosteroids

Administering antibiotics

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Tocolytics are a category of drugs used to delay the labor process. These may be used in situations when a pregnant person begins showing signs of preterm labor —which is any time before 37 weeks of completed pregnancy. Tocolytics may help delay labor by two to seven days.

Some possible explanations for the other choices are:

• Choice A. Administering intravenous fluids.

This is not a correct answer because intravenous fluids are not effective in suppressing uterine contractions. They may be used to correct dehydration or electrolyte imbalance, which can sometimes trigger preterm labor, but they are not a primary intervention for preterm labor.

• Choice C. Administering corticosteroids.

This is not a correct answer because corticosteroids are not tocolytics. They do not stop or slow down uterine contractions, but they help accelerate fetal lung maturity and reduce the risk of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome and other complications of prematurity.

Corticosteroids are often given along with tocolytics, but they have a different function and mechanism of action.

• Choice D. Administering antibiotics.

This is not a correct answer because antibiotics are not tocolytics. They may be used to treat infections that can cause or complicate preterm labor, such as chorioamnionitis or group B streptococcus, but they do not directly affect uterine contractions.

Antibiotics may be given along with tocolytics, but they have a different function.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that helps close the ductus arteriosus, a blood vessel connecting two arteries of the heart (aorta and pulmonary artery) in fetus.This drug is effective only among premature babies.

Choice B.Prostaglandin E1 is wrong because it is used to keep the ductus arteriosus open in some congenital heart defects that require surgery.

Choice C.Furosemide is wrong because it is a diuretic that reduces fluid retention and blood pressure, but does not affect the ductus arteriosus.

Choice D.Digoxin is wrong because it is a cardiac glycoside that strengthens the heart muscle contractions and regulates the heart rhythm, but does not affect the ductus arteriosus.

A. Magnesium sulfate B. Betamethasone C. Indomethacin D. Terbutaline

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Indomethacin is contraindicated for this client because it is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can irritate or inflame the lining of the stomach and small intestine.This can worsen the client’s peptic ulcer disease, which is a condition where open sores develop on the inner surface of the stomach or small intestine due to acid erosion.

Indomethacin can also interact with other medications that the client may be taking for pre-term labor or peptic ulcer disease.

Choice A is wrong because magnesium sulfate is not contraindicated for this client.It is a medication that can relax the smooth muscles of the uterus and prevent pre-term labor contractions.

Choice B is wrong because betamethasone is not contraindicated for this client.It is a corticosteroid that can help mature the fetal lungs and reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in pre-term infants.

Choice D is wrong because terbutaline is not contraindicated for this client.

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A client at 30 weeks of gestation is experiencing pre-term labor. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate to suppress uterine contractions?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a pre-term newborn who has a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA). Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer to close the ductus arteriosus?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is reviewing the medication history of a client who is in pre-term labor and has a history of peptic ulcer disease. The nurse should recognize that which of the following medications is contraindicated for this client?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is evaluating the understanding of a client who is at risk for pre-term labor and has been instructed to perform daily home uterine activity monitoring (HUAM). Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

A nurse is administering terbutaline to a client who is at 31 weeks of gestation and has pre-term labor. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect of this medication?

A nurse is planning care for a pre-term newborn who has a diagnosis of intraventricular hemorrhage (IVH). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

A nurse is teaching a client who is at 27 weeks of gestation and has pre-term labor about the signs and symptoms of true labor versus false labor. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

A nurse is administering betamethasone to a client who is in pre-term labor at 28 weeks of gestation. The nurse should explain that the purpose of this medication is to:

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a pre-term newborn who was born at 32 weeks of gestation. Which of the following values indicates a potential complication of necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC)?

A nurse is reviewing the ultrasound report of a client who is at 31 weeks of gestation and has pre-term labor. Which of the following findings indicates oligohydramnios?

A nurse is assessing a client who is in pre-term labor and has received one dose of terbutaline subcutaneously. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

A client at 30 weeks of gestation is experiencing pre-term labor.

Which intervention should the nurse anticipate to suppress uterine contractions?