A nurse is administering terbutaline to a client who is at 31 weeks of gestation and has pre-term labor.
Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect of this medication?
Hypotension
Tachycardia
Hyperglycemia
Hypokalemia
The Correct Answer is B
Tachycardia.
Terbutaline is a medication that can be used to stop or delay preterm labor by relaxing the uterine muscles. However, it can also cause serious side effects for both the mother and the baby. One of the most common side effects of terbutaline is tachycardia, which means a fast or irregular heartbeat. This can lead to chest pain, palpitations, shortness of breath, and even cardiac arrhythmias or ischemia.
Therefore, the nurse should monitor the mother’s heart rate and rhythm closely when administering terbutaline.
Choice A is wrong because terbutaline does not cause hypotension, which means low blood pressure. In fact, terbutaline can increase blood pressure by constricting blood vessels.
Choice C is wrong because terbutaline does not cause hyperglycemia, which means high blood sugar. However, terbutaline can interfere with insulin secretion and glucose metabolism in some cases, especially in diabetic mothers.
Therefore, the nurse should monitor the mother’s blood sugar levels when administering terbutaline.
Choice D is wrong because terbutaline does not cause hypokalemia, which means low potassium levels in the blood. However, terbutaline can cause a temporary increase in potassium levels in the baby, which can affect the baby’s heart function.
Therefore, the nurse should monitor the baby’s heart rate and rhythm when administering terbutaline.
Normal ranges for heart rate are 60 to 100 beats per minute for adults and 120 to 160 beats per minute for fetuses.
Normal ranges for blood pressure are typically between 90/60 mmHg and 120/80 mmHg.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C","D","E"]
Explanation
Magnesium sulfate IV infusion can cause various adverse effects such asflushing,headache,nauseaanddrowsiness.
These are common and expected side effects of this medication.
Choice A is wrong because magnesium sulfate IV infusion does not causediarrhea.Diarrhea is a possible side effect of oral magnesium sulfate, which is used as a laxative.
However, oral magnesium sulfate is not used to treat pre-term labor or prevent seizures.
Normal ranges of magnesium in the blood are 1.7 to 2.2 mg/dL for adults.
Magnesium sulfate IV infusion is used to treat hypomagnesemia (low levels of magnesium in the blood) or to prevent seizures in pregnant women with pre-eclampsia, eclampsia or toxemia.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Infection on speculum examination.
Infection is a major cause of preterm labor and can lead to serious complications for the mother and the fetus.
Infection can be detected by a speculum examination that shows signs of inflammation, such as erythema, edema, discharge, or odor.
Infection can also be confirmed by laboratory tests, such as culture, gram stain, or polymerase chain reaction.Infection should be treated promptly with antibiotics and other supportive measures.
Choice B. Bleeding on speculum examination is wrong because bleeding is not a direct cause of preterm labor, but rather a sign of other conditions that may increase the risk of preterm labor, such as placenta previa, placental abruption, or cervical trauma.Bleeding should be evaluated further to determine the source and severity of the hemorrhage and to manage any complications.
Choice C. Positive fetal fibronectin test (FFN) is wrong because a positive FFN test indicates the presence of fetal fibronectin in the cervical or vaginal secretions, which is a marker of increased risk of preterm labor, but not a definitive marker.
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