A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving terbutaline for pre-term labor.
Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider as a potential adverse effect of the medication?
Tachycardia
Hypotension
Hyperglycemia
Hypokalemia
The Correct Answer is D
Terbutaline can cause low potassium levels in the blood, which can lead to muscle weakness, cramps, and cardiac arrhythmias.
This is a potential adverse effect of the medication that should be reported to the provider.
Choice A is wrong because tachycardia is a common side effect of terbutaline that does not usually require medical attention.
Terbutaline works by stimulating beta-adrenergic receptors, which can increase the heart rate.
Choice B is wrong because hypotension is not a typical side effect of terbutaline. Terbutaline can actually cause elevated blood pressure in some cases.
Choice C is wrong because hyperglycemia is not a common side effect of terbutaline. Terbutaline can cause transient hyperglycemia in pregnant women, but this is not a reason to stop the medication.
Normal ranges for potassium are 3.5-5.0 mEq/L and for blood glucose are 70-110 mg/dL.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Assess fetal heart rate and activity.
The nurse should identify that a client who reports a sudden gush of fluid from her vagina is at risk forpremature rupture of membranes (PROM), which can lead toinfection,cord prolapse, andfetal distress.Therefore, the priority action is to assess the fetal heart rate and activity to monitor for signs of hypoxia or distress.
Choice B is wrong because performing a nitrazine test on the fluid is not the first action.A nitrazine test can confirm the presence of amniotic fluid by detecting its alkaline pH, but it is not as urgent as assessing the fetal well-being.
Choice C is wrong because administering oxytocin (Pitocin) IV infusion is contraindicated in this situation.Oxytocin is used to induce or augment labor, but it can causeuterine hyperstimulation,fetal distress, andplacental abruptionif given to a client who has PROM.
Choice D is wrong because placing the client in Trendelenburg position is not recommended for a client who has PROM.Trendelenburg position can increase the risk ofcord prolapseandaspirationin this situation.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
To promote fetal lung maturity.Betamethasone (Celestone) is a type of corticosteroid that can help reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome and other complications in preterm infants by accelerating the development of their lungs.It is recommended for pregnant women between 24 0/7 weeks and 36 6/7 weeks of gestation who are at risk of preterm delivery within 7 days.
Choice A is wrong because betamethasone does not suppress uterine contractions.
It has no effect on the cause of preterm labor.
Choice B is wrong because betamethasone does not prevent infection.
It may actually increase the risk of infection by suppressing the immune system.
Choice D is wrong because betamethasone does not reduce maternal blood pressure.
It may actually cause hypertension and hyperglycemia as side effects.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.