A nurse is reviewing the history of a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and has pre-term labor.
Which of the following factors increases the risk of pre-term labor?
History of gestational diabetes.
History of cervical cerclage
History of recurrent urinary tract infections
History of assisted reproductive technology
The Correct Answer is B
A cervical cerclage is a procedure that involves placing stitches around the cervix to prevent it from opening prematurely. This procedure is usually done for women who have a history of cervical insufficiency or a short cervix, which are risk factors for preterm labor.
Choice A is wrong because history of gestational diabetes is not a risk factor for preterm labor.
Gestational diabetes is a condition that causes high blood sugar during pregnancy and can affect the health of the mother and the baby, but it does not increase the risk of preterm labor.
Choice C is wrong because history of recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs) is a risk factor for preterm labor.
UTIs are infections that affect the urinary system and can cause symptoms such as pain, burning, or frequent urination.
UTIs can also spread to the kidneys or the uterus and cause inflammation or infection that can trigger preterm labor.
Choice D is wrong because history of assisted reproductive technology (ART) is a risk factor for preterm labor.
ART refers to any medical procedure that helps with conception, such as in vitro fertilization (IVF).
ART can increase the risk of preterm labor because it can result in multiple gestations (twins, triplets, or more), which put more strain on the uterus and can cause it to contract prematurely. ART can also cause complications such as placenta previa or rupture of the uterus, which can lead to preterm labor.
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
All of the above.The nurse should include all of these signs and symptoms in the teaching as they may indicate pre-term labor.Pre-term labor occurs when regular contractions begin to open the cervix before 37 weeks of pregnancy.
Choice A is wrong because decreased fetal movement is not a normal sign of pre-term labor, but it may indicate fetal distress or other complications.
Choice B is wrong because increased vaginal discharge is not a normal sign of pre-term labor, but it may indicate infection or rupture of membranes.
Choice C is wrong because pelvic pressure is not a normal sign of pre-term labor, but it may indicate cervical dilation or descent of the fetus.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can cause renal impairment and elevated serum creatinine levels in both the mother and the fetus.This can lead to oligohydramnios, reduced fetal urine output, and fetal renal failure.
Therefore, the nurse should monitor the serum creatinine levels of the client and the fetus as a potential complication of indomethacin.
Choice A is wrong because indomethacin does not affect the platelet count.It may increase the risk of bleeding due to its antiplatelet effect, but it does not cause thrombocytopenia.
Choice C is wrong because indomethacin does not cause anemia or decrease the hematocrit.It may cause gastrointestinal bleeding or ulceration, which could lead to anemia, but this is not a common or direct effect of the medication.
Choice D is wrong because indomethacin does not cause hyperkalemia or increase the serum potassium levels.It may cause hyponatremia due to its effect on renal sodium excretion, but it does not affect potassium balance.
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