A nurse is caring for a client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and reports lower abdominal cramping.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Assess the client’s vital signs
Perform a sterile vaginal exam
Administer tocolytic medication
Monitor the fetal heart rate
The Correct Answer is A
Assess the client’s vital signs.
The nurse should first assess the client’s vital signs to determine the severity of the situation and identify any signs of infection, bleeding, or shock.
The nurse should also monitor the fetal heart rate to assess fetal well-being.
Choice B is wrong because a sterile vaginal exam is not indicated for a client who reports lower abdominal cramping and may increase the risk of infection or rupture of membranes.
Choice C is wrong because administering tocolytic medication is not the first action the nurse should take.
Tocolytic medication may be used to inhibit uterine contractions and prolong pregnancy, but only after assessing the client’s and fetus’s condition and obtaining a prescription from the provider.
Choice D is wrong because monitoring the fetal heart rate is not the first action the nurse should take.
Monitoring the fetal heart rate is important to assess fetal well-being, but it does not take priority over assessing the client’s vital signs.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Regular uterine contractions occurring every 15 minutes.
This finding suggests that the client may have placental abruption, which is a serious complication that requires immediate medical attention.Placental abruption is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, which can cause heavy bleeding, pain, and fetal distress.
Choice B is wrong because low back pain and pelvic pressure are common symptoms of preterm labor, which is not as urgent as placental abruption.
Choice C is wrong because a change in vaginal discharge is not a specific sign of any complication and may be normal in pregnancy.
Choice D is wrong because rupture of membranes is not a priority finding in this case, unless it is associated with infection or cord prolapse.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
According to the search results, magnesium sulfate can have a negative effect on the fetal heart rate (FHR) by lowering the baseline, decreasing the variability, and reducing the reactivity or acceleration pattern.Absent variability means that there is no fluctuation in the FHR and it indicates fetal hypoxia or acidosis.
This is a potential adverse effect of magnesium sulfate on the fetus and requires immediate intervention.
Choice A.Accelerations is wrong because accelerations are transient increases in the FHR that indicate fetal well-being.They are not affected by magnesium sulfate.
Choice B.Early decelerations is wrong because early decelerations are decreases in the FHR that occur with uterine contractions and are caused by fetal head compression.They are benign and do not indicate fetal distress.They are not associated with magnesium sulfate.
Choice C.Variable decelerations is wrong because variable decelerations are abrupt decreases in the FHR that vary in shape, duration, and timing and are caused by umbilical cord compression.
They may or may not indicate fetal compromise.
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