A nurse is caring for a client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and reports lower abdominal cramping.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
Assess the client’s vital signs
Perform a sterile vaginal exam
Administer tocolytic medication
Monitor the fetal heart rate
The Correct Answer is A
Assess the client’s vital signs.
The nurse should first assess the client’s vital signs to determine the severity of the situation and identify any signs of infection, bleeding, or shock.
The nurse should also monitor the fetal heart rate to assess fetal well-being.
Choice B is wrong because a sterile vaginal exam is not indicated for a client who reports lower abdominal cramping and may increase the risk of infection or rupture of membranes.
Choice C is wrong because administering tocolytic medication is not the first action the nurse should take.
Tocolytic medication may be used to inhibit uterine contractions and prolong pregnancy, but only after assessing the client’s and fetus’s condition and obtaining a prescription from the provider.
Choice D is wrong because monitoring the fetal heart rate is not the first action the nurse should take.
Monitoring the fetal heart rate is important to assess fetal well-being, but it does not take priority over assessing the client’s vital signs.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
All of the above.The nurse should include all of these signs and symptoms in the teaching as they may indicate pre-term labor.Pre-term labor occurs when regular contractions begin to open the cervix before 37 weeks of pregnancy.
Choice A is wrong because decreased fetal movement is not a normal sign of pre-term labor, but it may indicate fetal distress or other complications.
Choice B is wrong because increased vaginal discharge is not a normal sign of pre-term labor, but it may indicate infection or rupture of membranes.
Choice C is wrong because pelvic pressure is not a normal sign of pre-term labor, but it may indicate cervical dilation or descent of the fetus.
Correct Answer is ["B","C","D","E"]
Explanation
Magnesium sulfate IV infusion can cause various adverse effects such asflushing,headache,nauseaanddrowsiness.
These are common and expected side effects of this medication.
Choice A is wrong because magnesium sulfate IV infusion does not causediarrhea.Diarrhea is a possible side effect of oral magnesium sulfate, which is used as a laxative.
However, oral magnesium sulfate is not used to treat pre-term labor or prevent seizures.
Normal ranges of magnesium in the blood are 1.7 to 2.2 mg/dL for adults.
Magnesium sulfate IV infusion is used to treat hypomagnesemia (low levels of magnesium in the blood) or to prevent seizures in pregnant women with pre-eclampsia, eclampsia or toxemia.
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