A nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of magnesium sulfate therapy for a client who is in pre-term labor.
Which of the following findings indicates that the therapy is successful?
The client reports decreased uterine contractions
The client’s blood pressure decreases to within normal limits
The client’s deep tendon reflexes are 2+
The client’s urine output increases to more than 30 mL/hr
The Correct Answer is A
Magnesium sulfate is a tocolytic drug that inhibits uterine activity and relaxes smooth muscles. The goal of magnesium sulfate therapy for a client who is in pre-term labor is to stop or reduce the frequency and intensity of contractions.
Choice B is wrong because the client’s blood pressure decreases to within normal limits.
Magnesium sulfate is not an antihypertensive drug and does not lower blood pressure. It is used to prevent seizures in clients with preeclampsia or eclampsia.
Choice C is wrong because the client’s deep tendon reflexes are 2+.
This is a normal finding and does not indicate the effectiveness of magnesium sulfate therapy. A decrease or loss of deep tendon reflexes may indicate magnesium toxicity, which is a serious complication that requires immediate intervention.
Choice D is wrong because the client’s urine output increases to more than 30 mL/hr.
This is also a normal finding and does not indicate the effectiveness of magnesium sulfate therapy. A decrease in urine output may indicate renal impairment or magnesium toxicity, which are both adverse effects of the drug.
The normal range for serum magnesium level is 1.5 to 2.5 mEq/L or 1.8 to 3 mg/dL. The therapeutic range for magnesium sulfate management is 5 to 8 mg/dL.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
History of urinary tract infections.According to the Mayo Clinic, untreated vaginal infections, such as urinary tract infections or sexually transmitted infections, are risk factors for preterm labor.
These infections can cause inflammation and irritation of the cervix, which can trigger contractions and cervical dilation.
Choice B is wrong because maternal age of 25 years is not a risk factor for preterm labor.In fact, women younger than 18 or older than 35 are more likely to have a preterm delivery.
Choice C is wrong because singleton pregnancy is not a risk factor for preterm labor.On the contrary, being pregnant with twins, triplets, or more (called "multiple gestations") is associated with a higher risk of preterm labor and birth.
Choice D is wrong because cervical length of 3 cm is not a risk factor for preterm labor.A short cervix (less than 2.5 cm) or a cervix that shortens in the second trimester instead of the third trimester is a risk factor for preterm delivery.A normal cervical length ranges from 3 to 5 cm during pregnancy.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Instruct the client to empty her bladder.This is because a full bladder can interfere with the insertion of the needle and increase the risk of injury to the bladder or the uterus.Emptying the bladder also reduces discomfort during the procedure.
Choice A is wrong because administering tocolytic medication to stop contractions is not necessary before amniocentesis.Tocolytic medication can have side effects and should only be used when there is a clear indication of preterm labor.
Choice C is wrong because obtaining informed consent from the client is not a nursing action, but a medical one.The nurse can assist in providing information and answering questions, but the final consent should be obtained by the doctor who will perform the procedure.
Choice D is wrong because monitoring fetal heart rate and activity is not a specific action before amniocentesis, but a routine part of prenatal care.Fetal heart rate and activity can be affected by many factors, such as maternal position, fetal sleep cycle, or maternal blood sugar level.
Monitoring them before amniocentesis does not provide any useful information for the procedure.
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