A nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of magnesium sulfate therapy for a client who is in pre-term labor.
Which of the following findings indicates that the therapy is successful?
The client reports decreased uterine contractions
The client’s blood pressure decreases to within normal limits
The client’s deep tendon reflexes are 2+
The client’s urine output increases to more than 30 mL/hr
The Correct Answer is A
Magnesium sulfate is a tocolytic drug that inhibits uterine activity and relaxes smooth muscles. The goal of magnesium sulfate therapy for a client who is in pre-term labor is to stop or reduce the frequency and intensity of contractions.
Choice B is wrong because the client’s blood pressure decreases to within normal limits.
Magnesium sulfate is not an antihypertensive drug and does not lower blood pressure. It is used to prevent seizures in clients with preeclampsia or eclampsia.
Choice C is wrong because the client’s deep tendon reflexes are 2+.
This is a normal finding and does not indicate the effectiveness of magnesium sulfate therapy. A decrease or loss of deep tendon reflexes may indicate magnesium toxicity, which is a serious complication that requires immediate intervention.
Choice D is wrong because the client’s urine output increases to more than 30 mL/hr.
This is also a normal finding and does not indicate the effectiveness of magnesium sulfate therapy. A decrease in urine output may indicate renal impairment or magnesium toxicity, which are both adverse effects of the drug.
The normal range for serum magnesium level is 1.5 to 2.5 mEq/L or 1.8 to 3 mg/dL. The therapeutic range for magnesium sulfate management is 5 to 8 mg/dL.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Assess fetal heart rate using a Doppler device.
This is because low back pain and pelvic pressure at 36 weeks of gestation may indicate preterm labor, which can affect the fetal well-being.Therefore, the nurse should assess the fetal heart rate as a priority to determine if the fetus is in distress or not.
Choice A is wrong because tocolytic medication is used to stop uterine contractions, not to relieve low back pain and pelvic pressure.Choice B is wrong because resting in a side-lying position may help with blood circulation and reduce supine hypotensive syndrome, but it does not address the possible cause of low back pain and pelvic pressure.Choice D is wrong because assessing vaginal discharge for any change may indicate infection, rupture of membranes, or cervical dilation, but it is not as urgent as assessing fetal heart rate.
Some interventions for preventing and treating low back pain and pelvic pressure during pregnancy include exercise, water-based exercise, acupuncture, osteomanipulative therapy, craniosacral therapy, and pelvic support belts.
However, these interventions should be discussed with the health care provider before starting them.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
To promote fetal lung maturity.Betamethasone (Celestone) is a type of corticosteroid that can help reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome and other complications in preterm infants by accelerating the development of their lungs.It is recommended for pregnant women between 24 0/7 weeks and 36 6/7 weeks of gestation who are at risk of preterm delivery within 7 days.
Choice A is wrong because betamethasone does not suppress uterine contractions.
It has no effect on the cause of preterm labor.
Choice B is wrong because betamethasone does not prevent infection.
It may actually increase the risk of infection by suppressing the immune system.
Choice D is wrong because betamethasone does not reduce maternal blood pressure.
It may actually cause hypertension and hyperglycemia as side effects.
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