A nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of magnesium sulfate therapy for a client who is in pre-term labor.
Which of the following findings indicates that the therapy is successful?
The client reports decreased uterine contractions
The client’s blood pressure decreases to within normal limits
The client’s deep tendon reflexes are 2+
The client’s urine output increases to more than 30 mL/hr
The Correct Answer is A
Magnesium sulfate is a tocolytic drug that inhibits uterine activity and relaxes smooth muscles. The goal of magnesium sulfate therapy for a client who is in pre-term labor is to stop or reduce the frequency and intensity of contractions.
Choice B is wrong because the client’s blood pressure decreases to within normal limits.
Magnesium sulfate is not an antihypertensive drug and does not lower blood pressure. It is used to prevent seizures in clients with preeclampsia or eclampsia.
Choice C is wrong because the client’s deep tendon reflexes are 2+.
This is a normal finding and does not indicate the effectiveness of magnesium sulfate therapy. A decrease or loss of deep tendon reflexes may indicate magnesium toxicity, which is a serious complication that requires immediate intervention.
Choice D is wrong because the client’s urine output increases to more than 30 mL/hr.
This is also a normal finding and does not indicate the effectiveness of magnesium sulfate therapy. A decrease in urine output may indicate renal impairment or magnesium toxicity, which are both adverse effects of the drug.
The normal range for serum magnesium level is 1.5 to 2.5 mEq/L or 1.8 to 3 mg/dL. The therapeutic range for magnesium sulfate management is 5 to 8 mg/dL.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
All of the above.The nurse should include all of these signs and symptoms in the teaching as they may indicate pre-term labor.Pre-term labor occurs when regular contractions begin to open the cervix before 37 weeks of pregnancy.
Choice A is wrong because decreased fetal movement is not a normal sign of pre-term labor, but it may indicate fetal distress or other complications.
Choice B is wrong because increased vaginal discharge is not a normal sign of pre-term labor, but it may indicate infection or rupture of membranes.
Choice C is wrong because pelvic pressure is not a normal sign of pre-term labor, but it may indicate cervical dilation or descent of the fetus.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Betamethasone is a corticosteroid that is given to pregnant women who are at risk of preterm delivery to enhance fetal lung maturity and prevent respiratory distress syndrome.It is usually given in two doses, 24 hours apart, and takes effect within 24 hours of administration.
Choice B.Magnesium sulfate is wrong because it is used to prevent seizures in women with severe preeclampsia or eclampsia, not to prevent respiratory distress syndrome.
Choice C.Nifedipine is wrong because it is a calcium channel blocker that is used to inhibit uterine contractions and prolong pregnancy in women with preterm labor, not to prevent respiratory distress syndrome.
Choice D.Indomethacin is wrong because it is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug that is used to inhibit prostaglandin synthesis and reduce uterine activity in women with preterm labor, not to prevent respiratory distress syndrome.However, it can also cause premature closure of the ductus arteriosus in the fetus and should be avoided after 32 weeks of gestation.
Normal ranges for gestational age are 37 to 42 weeks.
Preterm labor is defined as regular uterine contractions with cervical changes.
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