A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving magnesium sulfate for pre-term labor.
Which of the following assessments should the nurse perform to evaluate the therapeutic effect of the medication?
Measure urine output
Check deep tendon reflexes
Assess uterine activity
Monitor blood pressure
The Correct Answer is C
The therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate is to inhibit uterine contractions and prevent or delay preterm labor.
By assessing uterine activity, the nurse can evaluate if the medication is working or not.
Choice A is wrong because measuring urine output is not directly related to the therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but rather to monitor for toxicity and renal function.
Choice B is wrong because checking deep tendon reflexes is also not directly related to the therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but rather to monitor for neuromuscular effects and toxicity.
Choice D is wrong because monitoring blood pressure is not directly related to the therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but rather to monitor for cardiovascular effects and toxicity.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Assess fetal heart rate and activity.
The nurse should identify that a client who reports a sudden gush of fluid from her vagina is at risk forpremature rupture of membranes (PROM), which can lead toinfection,cord prolapse, andfetal distress.Therefore, the priority action is to assess the fetal heart rate and activity to monitor for signs of hypoxia or distress.
Choice B is wrong because performing a nitrazine test on the fluid is not the first action.A nitrazine test can confirm the presence of amniotic fluid by detecting its alkaline pH, but it is not as urgent as assessing the fetal well-being.
Choice C is wrong because administering oxytocin (Pitocin) IV infusion is contraindicated in this situation.Oxytocin is used to induce or augment labor, but it can causeuterine hyperstimulation,fetal distress, andplacental abruptionif given to a client who has PROM.
Choice D is wrong because placing the client in Trendelenburg position is not recommended for a client who has PROM.Trendelenburg position can increase the risk ofcord prolapseandaspirationin this situation.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
All of the above.The nurse should include all of these signs and symptoms in the teaching as they may indicate pre-term labor.Pre-term labor occurs when regular contractions begin to open the cervix before 37 weeks of pregnancy.
Choice A is wrong because decreased fetal movement is not a normal sign of pre-term labor, but it may indicate fetal distress or other complications.
Choice B is wrong because increased vaginal discharge is not a normal sign of pre-term labor, but it may indicate infection or rupture of membranes.
Choice C is wrong because pelvic pressure is not a normal sign of pre-term labor, but it may indicate cervical dilation or descent of the fetus.
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