A nurse is caring for a pre-term newborn who has a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA).
Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer to close the ductus arteriosus?
Indomethacin
Prostaglandin E1
Furosemide
Digoxin
The Correct Answer is A
Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that helps close the ductus arteriosus, a blood vessel connecting two arteries of the heart (aorta and pulmonary artery) in fetus. This drug is effective only among premature babies.
Choice B. Prostaglandin E1 is wrong because it is used to keep the ductus arteriosus open in some congenital heart defects that require surgery.
Choice C. Furosemide is wrong because it is a diuretic that reduces fluid retention and blood pressure, but does not affect the ductus arteriosus.
Choice D. Digoxin is wrong because it is a cardiac glycoside that strengthens the heart muscle contractions and regulates the heart rhythm, but does not affect the ductus arteriosus.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Assess fetal heart rate using a Doppler device.
This is because low back pain and pelvic pressure at 36 weeks of gestation may indicate preterm labor, which can affect the fetal well-being.Therefore, the nurse should assess the fetal heart rate as a priority to determine if the fetus is in distress or not.
Choice A is wrong because tocolytic medication is used to stop uterine contractions, not to relieve low back pain and pelvic pressure.Choice B is wrong because resting in a side-lying position may help with blood circulation and reduce supine hypotensive syndrome, but it does not address the possible cause of low back pain and pelvic pressure.Choice D is wrong because assessing vaginal discharge for any change may indicate infection, rupture of membranes, or cervical dilation, but it is not as urgent as assessing fetal heart rate.
Some interventions for preventing and treating low back pain and pelvic pressure during pregnancy include exercise, water-based exercise, acupuncture, osteomanipulative therapy, craniosacral therapy, and pelvic support belts.
However, these interventions should be discussed with the health care provider before starting them.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Infection on speculum examination.
Infection is a major cause of preterm labor and can lead to serious complications for the mother and the fetus.
Infection can be detected by a speculum examination that shows signs of inflammation, such as erythema, edema, discharge, or odor.
Infection can also be confirmed by laboratory tests, such as culture, gram stain, or polymerase chain reaction.Infection should be treated promptly with antibiotics and other supportive measures.
Choice B. Bleeding on speculum examination is wrong because bleeding is not a direct cause of preterm labor, but rather a sign of other conditions that may increase the risk of preterm labor, such as placenta previa, placental abruption, or cervical trauma.Bleeding should be evaluated further to determine the source and severity of the hemorrhage and to manage any complications.
Choice C. Positive fetal fibronectin test (FFN) is wrong because a positive FFN test indicates the presence of fetal fibronectin in the cervical or vaginal secretions, which is a marker of increased risk of preterm labor, but not a definitive marker.
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