A nurse is caring for a pre-term newborn who has a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA).
Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer to close the ductus arteriosus?
Indomethacin
Prostaglandin E1
Furosemide
Digoxin
The Correct Answer is A
Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that helps close the ductus arteriosus, a blood vessel connecting two arteries of the heart (aorta and pulmonary artery) in fetus. This drug is effective only among premature babies.
Choice B. Prostaglandin E1 is wrong because it is used to keep the ductus arteriosus open in some congenital heart defects that require surgery.
Choice C. Furosemide is wrong because it is a diuretic that reduces fluid retention and blood pressure, but does not affect the ductus arteriosus.
Choice D. Digoxin is wrong because it is a cardiac glycoside that strengthens the heart muscle contractions and regulates the heart rhythm, but does not affect the ductus arteriosus.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Betamethasone is a corticosteroid that is given to pregnant women who are at risk of preterm delivery to enhance fetal lung maturity and prevent respiratory distress syndrome.It is usually given in two doses, 24 hours apart, and takes effect within 24 hours of administration.
Choice B.Magnesium sulfate is wrong because it is used to prevent seizures in women with severe preeclampsia or eclampsia, not to prevent respiratory distress syndrome.
Choice C.Nifedipine is wrong because it is a calcium channel blocker that is used to inhibit uterine contractions and prolong pregnancy in women with preterm labor, not to prevent respiratory distress syndrome.
Choice D.Indomethacin is wrong because it is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug that is used to inhibit prostaglandin synthesis and reduce uterine activity in women with preterm labor, not to prevent respiratory distress syndrome.However, it can also cause premature closure of the ductus arteriosus in the fetus and should be avoided after 32 weeks of gestation.
Normal ranges for gestational age are 37 to 42 weeks.
Preterm labor is defined as regular uterine contractions with cervical changes.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Assess the client’s vital signs.
The nurse should first assess the client’s vital signs to determine the severity of the situation and identify any signs of infection, bleeding, or shock.
The nurse should also monitor the fetal heart rate to assess fetal well-being.
Choice B is wrong because a sterile vaginal exam is not indicated for a client who reports lower abdominal cramping and may increase the risk of infection or rupture of membranes.
Choice C is wrong because administering tocolytic medication is not the first action the nurse should take.
Tocolytic medication may be used to inhibit uterine contractions and prolong pregnancy, but only after assessing the client’s and fetus’s condition and obtaining a prescription from the provider.
Choice D is wrong because monitoring the fetal heart rate is not the first action the nurse should take.
Monitoring the fetal heart rate is important to assess fetal well-being, but it does not take priority over assessing the client’s vital signs.
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