A nurse is assessing a client who is in pre-term labor and has received one dose of terbutaline subcutaneously.
Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Heart rate of 110/min
Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg
Blood glucose of 90 mg/dL
Temperature of 37°C (98.6°F)
The Correct Answer is B
Blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg. This is because terbutaline can cause elevated blood pressure as a side effect.
The nurse should report this finding to the provider as it may indicate hypertension or a hypertensive crisis.
Choice A is wrong because a heart rate of 110/min is not abnormal for a person who has received terbutaline. Terbutaline can cause fast or pounding heartbeats as a common side effect.
Choice C is wrong because a blood glucose of 90 mg/dL is within the normal range of 70-130 mg/dL before meals. Terbutaline can cause transient hyperglycemia (high blood sugar) as a serious side effect, but this is not the case here.
Choice D is wrong because a temperature of 37°C (98.6°F) is normal for a human being. Terbutaline does not cause fever or hypothermia as a side effect.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that helps close the ductus arteriosus, a blood vessel connecting two arteries of the heart (aorta and pulmonary artery) in fetus.This drug is effective only among premature babies.
Choice B.Prostaglandin E1 is wrong because it is used to keep the ductus arteriosus open in some congenital heart defects that require surgery.
Choice C.Furosemide is wrong because it is a diuretic that reduces fluid retention and blood pressure, but does not affect the ductus arteriosus.
Choice D.Digoxin is wrong because it is a cardiac glycoside that strengthens the heart muscle contractions and regulates the heart rhythm, but does not affect the ductus arteriosus.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Prepare for an emergency cesarean section.This is because the client has pre-term labor that has not responded to tocolytic therapy, which are drugs that are used to delay delivery for a short time.The client’s cervix is dilated to 4 cm and she is experiencing regular contractions every 3 minutes, which are signs of active labor.The baby is at 33 weeks of gestation, which is premature and may have complications such as respiratory distress syndrome or bleeding in the brain.
Therefore, the client needs an emergency cesarean section to deliver the baby as soon as possible and prevent further risks.
Choice A is wrong because administering magnesium sulfate intravenously is a type of tocolytic therapy that the client has already failed.Magnesium sulfate may also have side effects such as nausea, vomiting, flushing, headache, and muscle weakness.
Choice C is wrong because placing the client in Trendelenburg position, which is lying on the back with the feet elevated above the head, is not recommended for preterm labor.This position may increase the risk of aspiration, decrease cardiac output, and impair gas exchange.
Choice D is wrong because administering antibiotics prophylactically is not indicated for preterm labor unless there is evidence of infection in the uterus or membranes.
Antibiotics may also cause allergic reactions or bacterial resistance
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