A nurse is caring for a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation and has pre-term labor.

The client reports a sudden gush of fluid from her vagina.

Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Assess fetal heart rate and activity

Perform a nitrazine test on the fluid

Administer oxytocin (Pitocin) IV infusion

Place the client in Trendelenburg position

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Assess fetal heart rate and activity.

The nurse should identify that a client who reports a sudden gush of fluid from her vagina is at risk for premature rupture of membranes (PROM), which can lead to infection, cord prolapse, and fetal distress. Therefore, the priority action is to assess the fetal heart rate and activity to monitor for signs of hypoxia or distress.

Choice B is wrong because performing a nitrazine test on the fluid is not the first action. A nitrazine test can confirm the presence of amniotic fluid by detecting its alkaline pH, but it is not as urgent as assessing the fetal well-being.

Choice C is wrong because administering oxytocin (Pitocin) IV infusion is contraindicated in this situation. Oxytocin is used to induce or augment labor, but it can cause uterine hyperstimulation, fetal distress, and placental abruption if given to a client who has PROM.

Choice D is wrong because placing the client in Trendelenburg position is not recommended for a client who has PROM. Trendelenburg position can increase the risk of cord prolapse and aspiration in this situation.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker that is used to relax uterine contractions and postpone preterm labor.However, it can also lower blood pressure and cause side effects such as headache, dizziness, flushing, and palpitations.Therefore, it should be avoided in clients who have cardiac disease or other conditions that affect the heart function.

Choice A is wrong because asthma is not a contraindication for nifedipine.Nifedipine does not affect the airways or cause bronchospasm.

Choice B is wrong because diabetes mellitus is not a contraindication for nifedipine.Nifedipine does not affect blood glucose levels or insulin secretion.

Choice C is wrong because hypertension is not a contraindication for nifedipine.In fact, nifedipine can be used to treat high blood pressure as well as preterm labor.However, blood pressure should be monitored closely during nifedipine therapy to avoid hypotension.

A. Administer IV fluids B. Obtain a urine specimen C. Assess fetal heart rate D. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

This is because assessing fetal heart rate is the most important action to take first when a client has prelabor rupture of membranes (PROM) at 34 weeks of gestation and oligohydramnios.Fetal heart rate can indicate fetal well-being, distress, or infection.Oligohydramnios can increase the risk of umbilical cord compression and fetal hypoxia.

Choice A is wrong because administering IV fluids is not the first priority in this situation.IV fluids may be given to prevent dehydration, enhance uterine blood flow, or augment labor, but they are not as urgent as assessing fetal heart rate.

Choice B is wrong because obtaining a urine specimen is not the first priority in this situation.A urine specimen may be obtained to check for infection, proteinuria, or glucose levels, but they are not as urgent as assessing fetal heart rate.

Choice D is wrong because inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is not the first priority in this situation.An indwelling urinary catheter may be inserted to monitor fluid balance, prevent bladder distension, or reduce the risk of infection, but they are not as urgent as assessing fetal heart rate.

Normal ranges for fetal heart rate are 110 to 160 beats per minute.Oligohydramnios is defined as an amniotic fluid index of less than 5 cm.

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A nurse is caring for a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation and has pre-term labor. The client reports a sudden gush of fluid from her vagina. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is preparing to administer nifedipine to a client who is in pre-term labor. The nurse should withhold the medication and notify the provider if the client has which of the following conditions?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is admitting a client who is in pre-term labor at 34 weeks of gestation and has ruptured membranes and oligohydramnios. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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A nurse is caring for a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation and has pre-term labor.

The client reports a sudden gush of fluid from her vagina.

Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?