A nurse is teaching a client who is at risk for pre-term labor about the signs and symptoms to report to the provider.
Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?
Decreased fetal movement
Increased vaginal discharge
Pelvic pressure
All of the above
The Correct Answer is D
All of the above. The nurse should include all of these signs and symptoms in the teaching as they may indicate pre-term labor. Pre-term labor occurs when regular contractions begin to open the cervix before 37 weeks of pregnancy.
Choice A is wrong because decreased fetal movement is not a normal sign of pre-term labor, but it may indicate fetal distress or other complications.
Choice B is wrong because increased vaginal discharge is not a normal sign of pre-term labor, but it may indicate infection or rupture of membranes.
Choice C is wrong because pelvic pressure is not a normal sign of pre-term labor, but it may indicate cervical dilation or descent of the fetus.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Betamethasone is a corticosteroid that is given to pregnant women who are at risk of preterm labor to improve neonatal outcomes.Betamethasone stimulates the production of surfactant, a substance that lubricates the lungs and prevents them from collapsing after birth.This reduces the risk of respiratory distress syndrome, a common complication of preterm birth.
Choice B is wrong because betamethasone does not decrease the risk of infection in the newborn.In fact, it may increase the risk of maternal and neonatal infections by suppressing the immune system.
Choice C is wrong because betamethasone does not increase blood glucose levels in the newborn.However, it may cause transient hyperglycemia in the mother, which should be monitored and treated if necessary.
Choice D is wrong because betamethasone does not decrease the risk of bleeding in the newborn.It may increase the risk of intraventricular hemorrhage, a type of bleeding in the brain, if given before 24 weeks of gestation.Therefore, it should be used with caution in this population and only after a family’s decision regarding resuscitation.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Assess the client’s vital signs.
The nurse should first assess the client’s vital signs to determine the severity of the situation and identify any signs of infection, bleeding, or shock.
The nurse should also monitor the fetal heart rate to assess fetal well-being.
Choice B is wrong because a sterile vaginal exam is not indicated for a client who reports lower abdominal cramping and may increase the risk of infection or rupture of membranes.
Choice C is wrong because administering tocolytic medication is not the first action the nurse should take.
Tocolytic medication may be used to inhibit uterine contractions and prolong pregnancy, but only after assessing the client’s and fetus’s condition and obtaining a prescription from the provider.
Choice D is wrong because monitoring the fetal heart rate is not the first action the nurse should take.
Monitoring the fetal heart rate is important to assess fetal well-being, but it does not take priority over assessing the client’s vital signs.
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