A nurse is teaching a client who is at risk for pre-term labor about the signs and symptoms to report to the provider.
Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?
Decreased fetal movement
Increased vaginal discharge
Pelvic pressure
All of the above
The Correct Answer is D
All of the above. The nurse should include all of these signs and symptoms in the teaching as they may indicate pre-term labor. Pre-term labor occurs when regular contractions begin to open the cervix before 37 weeks of pregnancy.
Choice A is wrong because decreased fetal movement is not a normal sign of pre-term labor, but it may indicate fetal distress or other complications.
Choice B is wrong because increased vaginal discharge is not a normal sign of pre-term labor, but it may indicate infection or rupture of membranes.
Choice C is wrong because pelvic pressure is not a normal sign of pre-term labor, but it may indicate cervical dilation or descent of the fetus.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Ultrasound.
An ultrasound can help determine the gestational age, fetal growth, placental location, and amniotic fluid volume of the fetus.
These factors can affect the risk of pre-term labor and delivery.
An ultrasound can also detect cervical changes that may indicate pre-term labor.
Choice B is wrong because a blood count is not specific for pre-term labor.
It may be done to check for anemia, infection, or other conditions that may affect the pregnancy, but it does not directly assess the risk of pre-term labor.
Choice C is wrong because a urine culture is not specific for pre-term labor.
It may be done to check for urinary tract infection, which can cause pre-term labor, but it does not directly assess the risk of pre-term labor.
Choice D is wrong because an amniocentesis is not usually done for pre-term labor.
It may be done to check for fetal lung maturity, chromosomal abnormalities, or infections, but it is an invasive procedure that carries some risks and complications.
It does not directly assess the risk of pre-term labor.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Assess fetal heart rate and activity.
The nurse should identify that a client who reports a sudden gush of fluid from her vagina is at risk forpremature rupture of membranes (PROM), which can lead toinfection,cord prolapse, andfetal distress.Therefore, the priority action is to assess the fetal heart rate and activity to monitor for signs of hypoxia or distress.
Choice B is wrong because performing a nitrazine test on the fluid is not the first action.A nitrazine test can confirm the presence of amniotic fluid by detecting its alkaline pH, but it is not as urgent as assessing the fetal well-being.
Choice C is wrong because administering oxytocin (Pitocin) IV infusion is contraindicated in this situation.Oxytocin is used to induce or augment labor, but it can causeuterine hyperstimulation,fetal distress, andplacental abruptionif given to a client who has PROM.
Choice D is wrong because placing the client in Trendelenburg position is not recommended for a client who has PROM.Trendelenburg position can increase the risk ofcord prolapseandaspirationin this situation.
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