A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client prior to medication administration and notes a history of an anaphylactic reaction to penicillin.
The nurse should identify that which of the following medications is contraindicated for this client?

Vancomycin.

Clarithromycin.

Metronidazole.

Ceftriaxone.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Ceftriaxone is contraindicated for this client because it is a cephalosporin antibiotic, which has a similar structure to penicillin and can cause cross-reactivity in individuals with a penicillin allergy.

Choice A is wrong because Vancomycin is not a beta-lactam antibiotic and does not have cross-reactivity with penicillin.

Choice B is wrong because Clarithromycin is a macrolide antibiotic and does not have cross-reactivity with penicillin.

Choice C is wrong because Metronidazole is a nitroimidazole antibiotic and does not have cross-reactivity with penicillin.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant medication and is not administered subcutaneously.

The nurse should clarify this prescription with the provider before administering it.

Choice A is wrong because tetracycline can be prescribed in doses of 1 g orally every 6 hours.

Choice C is wrong because Penicillin G can be prescribed in doses of 5,000,000 units intramuscularly every 4 hours.

Choice D is wrong because Zoledronate can be prescribed as a single intravenous dose of 5 mg.

A. Decreased nausea. B. Increased respiratory rate. C. Decreased blood pressure. D. Increased pain relief.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

This is because naloxone is an opioid antagonist that rapidly reverses an opioid overdose by attaching to opioid receptors and reversing and blocking the effects of other opioids.

It can quickly restore normal breathing to a person if their breathing has slowed or stopped because of an opioid overdose.

Choice A is wrong because decreased nausea is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone.

Choice C is wrong because decreased blood pressure is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone.

Choice D is wrong because increased pain relief is not a therapeutic effect of naloxone.

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A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client prior to medication administration and notes a history of an anaphylactic reaction to penicillin. The nurse should identify that which of the following medications is contraindicated for this client?

Nursing Test Bank

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A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client prior to medication administration and notes a history of an anaphylactic reaction to penicillin.
The nurse should identify that which of the following medications is contraindicated for this client?