A nurse is caring for an older adult client who is taking prednisone for long-term treatment of rheumatoid arthritis.
The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this drug?
Liver toxicity.
Hypoglycemia.
Hemolytic anemia.
Bone loss.
The Correct Answer is D
Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can be used to treat rheumatoid arthritis and other conditions by reducing inflammation and suppressing the immune system.
However, long-term use of prednisone can cause side effects, including bone loss.
Choice A is wrong because liver toxicity is not a common side effect of prednisone.
Choice B is wrong because hypoglycemia is not a common side effect of prednisone; instead, elevated blood sugar is a possible side effect.
Choice C is wrong because hemolytic anemia is not a common side effect of prednisone.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Compare the current and newly prescribed medications and note any discrepancies.
During medication reconciliation, the nurse should compare the client’s current medication orders with the medications that the client has been taking and note any discrepancies.
Choice A is wrong because Reviewing the adverse effects of the medication with the client, is not part of medication reconciliation.
Choice C is wrong because Sending a list of the prescribed medications to the client’s pharmacy, is not part of medication reconciliation.
Choice D is wrong because Including the medications the client received during surgery on the client’s medication list, is not part of medication reconciliation.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant medication and is not administered subcutaneously.
The nurse should clarify this prescription with the provider before administering it.
Choice A is wrong because tetracycline can be prescribed in doses of 1 g orally every 6 hours.
Choice C is wrong because Penicillin G can be prescribed in doses of 5,000,000 units intramuscularly every 4 hours.
Choice D is wrong because Zoledronate can be prescribed as a single intravenous dose of 5 mg.
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