A nurse is caring for an older adult client who is taking prednisone for long-term treatment of rheumatoid arthritis.
The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this drug?
Liver toxicity.
Hypoglycemia.
Hemolytic anemia.
Bone loss.
The Correct Answer is D

Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can be used to treat rheumatoid arthritis and other conditions by reducing inflammation and suppressing the immune system.
However, long-term use of prednisone can cause side effects, including bone loss.
Choice A is wrong because liver toxicity is not a common side effect of prednisone.
Choice B is wrong because hypoglycemia is not a common side effect of prednisone; instead, elevated blood sugar is a possible side effect.
Choice C is wrong because hemolytic anemia is not a common side effect of prednisone.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The nurse should instruct the client to administer the medication through clothing if necessary.

In an emergency, an epinephrine auto-injector can be given through clothing.
Choice A is wrong because massaging the site after injection is not mentioned as something to avoid in the instructions for using an epinephrine auto-injector.
Choice B is wrong because the medication should be injected into the outer thigh, not the abdomen.
Choice D is wrong because aspiration prior to administration of the medication is not mentioned as a necessary step in the instructions for using an epinephrine auto-injector.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation

Heparin therapy is used to prevent thrombus propagation and distal embolization while allowing the endogenous fibrinolytic system to dissolve existing clots in deep-vein thrombosis (DVT)1.
A reduction in calf circumference may indicate that the clot is dissolving and the therapy is effective.
Choice A is wrong because platelets within the expected reference range do not necessarily indicate that heparin therapy for DVT is effective.
Choice B is wrong because INR (International Normalized Ratio) is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin therapy.
Choice C is wrong because the presence of pedal pulses bilaterally does not necessarily indicate that heparin therapy for DVT is effective.
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