A nurse is reviewing the discharge instructions for a client who had severe preeclampsia and delivered her baby at 34 weeks of gestation by cesarean birth.
Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
“I will need to take magnesium sulfate for another week.”
“I will have to monitor my blood pressure at home for a month.”
“I will have to avoid breastfeeding until my condition resolves.”
“I will have to use contraception for at least 6 months.”
The Correct Answer is B
The client will have to monitor her blood pressure at home for a month after delivery because preeclampsia can persist or develop for the first time after delivery. The client should seek medical care if she has signs of postpartum preeclampsia, such as severe headaches, vision changes, severe belly pain, nausea and vomiting.
Choice A is wrong because magnesium sulfate is an anticonvulsant medication that is given to prevent seizures in women with severe preeclampsia during labor and usually for 24 hours after delivery.
It is not needed for another week.
Choice C is wrong because breastfeeding is not contraindicated in women with preeclampsia. Breastfeeding may even lower the blood pressure and help with bonding.
Choice D is wrong because contraception is not related to preeclampsia. The client should discuss with her healthcare provider about the best contraceptive method for her based on her medical history and preferences.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Epigastric pain and nausea.This is because epigastric pain and nausea are signs of severe preeclampsia that indicate liver involvement and possible hepatic rupture.
This is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention to prevent maternal and fetal complications.
Choice A is wrong because contractions lasting 90 seconds and occurring every 2 minutes are normal during labor induction with oxytocin and do not indicate severe preeclampsia.
Choice B is wrong because fetal heart rate baseline of 140/min with moderate variability is a reassuring sign of fetal well-being and does not indicate severe preeclampsia.
Choice C is wrong because cervical dilation of 4 cm and effacement of 50% are normal findings during labor induction and do not indicate severe preeclampsia.
Correct Answer is ["B","C","D","E"]
Explanation
The correct answer is choices B, C, D, and E.These are all risk factors for pre-eclampsia according to various sources.
Choice A is wrong because age over 35 years is not a risk factor for pre-eclampsia by itself, although it may be associated with other conditions that increase the risk, such as chronic hypertension or diabetes.
Pre-eclampsia is a complication of pregnancy that involves high blood pressure, protein in the urine, and organ damage.It can affect both the mother and the fetus and can lead to serious complications such as eclampsia (seizures), placental abruption, and stillbirth.It is more common in first pregnancies, especially with a new partner, because of the immune response to the foreign fetal antigens.Obesity, diabetes mellitus, and multiple gestation are also risk factors because they increase the metabolic and vascular demands on the placenta and the mother.
Normal ranges for blood pressure and proteinuria in pregnancy are:
• Blood pressure: less than 140/90 mmHg
• Proteinuria: less than 300 mg/24 hours or less than 30 mg/dL on a random urine sample
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