A nurse is caring for a client with eclampsia who is having a tonic-clonic seizure.
Which action should the nurse take first?
Administer oxygen via face mask
Turn the client to the side
Insert an oral airway
Give a loading dose of magnesium sulfate
The Correct Answer is B
Turn the client to the side. This is because turning the client to the side will prevent aspiration of secretions or vomitus and maintain a patent airway during a seizure.
This is the most important and immediate action to take for a client with eclampsia who is having a tonic-clonic seizure.
Choice A is wrong because administering oxygen via face mask is not the first priority and may not be feasible during a seizure. Oxygen therapy may be indicated after the seizure to improve oxygenation and fetal well-being.
Choice C is wrong because inserting an oral airway is contraindicated during a seizure as it may cause injury to the oral mucosa or trigger a gag reflex. An oral airway may be used after the seizure if the client is unconscious and has a compromised airway.
Choice D is wrong because giving a loading dose of magnesium sulfate is not the first action to take, although it is an important intervention to prevent further seizures and lower blood pressure in eclampsia. Magnesium sulfate should be administered intravenously after securing the airway and ensuring adequate ventilation.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The client will have to monitor her blood pressure at home for a month after delivery because preeclampsia can persist or develop for the first time after delivery.The client should seek medical care if she has signs of postpartum preeclampsia, such as severe headaches, vision changes, severe belly pain, nausea and vomiting.
Choice A is wrong because magnesium sulfate is an anticonvulsant medication that is given to prevent seizures in women with severe preeclampsia during labor and usually for 24 hours after delivery.
It is not needed for another week.
Choice C is wrong because breastfeeding is not contraindicated in women with preeclampsia.Breastfeeding may even lower the blood pressure and help with bonding.
Choice D is wrong because contraception is not related to preeclampsia.The client should discuss with her healthcare provider about the best contraceptive method for her based on her medical history and preferences.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Headache that does not respond to analgesics.This is a possible sign of postpartum pre-eclampsia, a rare condition that occurs when a woman has high blood pressure and excess protein in her urine soon after childbirth.Postpartum pre-eclampsia can cause seizures and other serious complications if not treated.
Choice B is wrong because breast engorgement and tenderness are normal symptoms of breastfeeding and do not indicate postpartum pre-eclampsia.
Choice C is wrong because lochia rubra with small clots is a normal discharge of blood and tissue from the uterus after delivery and does not indicate postpartum pre-eclampsia.
Choice D is wrong because perineal pain and swelling are common after vaginal delivery and do not indicate postpartum pre-eclampsia.
Normal ranges for blood pressure are below 120/80 mm Hg and for protein in urine are below 150 mg/day.
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