A nurse is caring for a client with eclampsia who is having a tonic-clonic seizure.
Which action should the nurse take first?
Administer oxygen via face mask
Turn the client to the side
Insert an oral airway
Give a loading dose of magnesium sulfate
The Correct Answer is B
Turn the client to the side. This is because turning the client to the side will prevent aspiration of secretions or vomitus and maintain a patent airway during a seizure.
This is the most important and immediate action to take for a client with eclampsia who is having a tonic-clonic seizure.
Choice A is wrong because administering oxygen via face mask is not the first priority and may not be feasible during a seizure. Oxygen therapy may be indicated after the seizure to improve oxygenation and fetal well-being.
Choice C is wrong because inserting an oral airway is contraindicated during a seizure as it may cause injury to the oral mucosa or trigger a gag reflex. An oral airway may be used after the seizure if the client is unconscious and has a compromised airway.
Choice D is wrong because giving a loading dose of magnesium sulfate is not the first action to take, although it is an important intervention to prevent further seizures and lower blood pressure in eclampsia. Magnesium sulfate should be administered intravenously after securing the airway and ensuring adequate ventilation.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The client has no seizures.Magnesium sulfate therapy is used to prevent seizures in women with preeclampsia and eclampsia.Seizures are a life-threatening complication of eclampsia and indicate a failure of therapy.
Choice B is wrong because diuresis is not a goal of magnesium sulfate therapy.Diuresis may indicate fluid overload or renal impairment, which are complications of preeclampsia and eclampsia.
Choice C is wrong because improved fetal movement is not a direct outcome of magnesium sulfate therapy.Fetal movement may be affected by many factors, such as gestational age, maternal position, and fetal well-being.
Choice D is wrong because increased platelet count is not a result of magnesium sulfate therapy.Platelet count may be decreased in preeclampsia and eclampsia due to disseminated intravascular coagulation, which is a serious complication that requires prompt treatment.
Normal ranges for blood pressure are less than 140/90 mm Hg, for proteinuria are less than 300 mg/24 hours, for platelet count are 150,000 to 400,000/mm3, and for serum magnesium are 1.5 to 2.5 mEq/L.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Labetalol is an antihypertensive drug that can lower blood pressure in pregnant women with preeclampsia.Preeclampsia is a condition that causes high blood pressure and proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation.
Choice A is wrong because hydralazine is not recommended as a first-line treatment for preeclampsia due to its potential adverse effects on maternal and fetal outcomes.
Choice B is wrong because nifedipine is not licensed for use in pregnancy and may interact with magnesium sulfate, which is an anticonvulsant medication used to prevent or treat seizures in severe preeclampsia.
Choice D is wrong because methyldopa is not effective for acute blood pressure control and may cause adverse effects such as depression, sedation, and hemolytic anemia.
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