A nurse is reviewing the electronic health record of a client who has severe preeclampsia and is being induced with oxytocin.
Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?
Contractions lasting 90 seconds and occurring every 2 minutes
Fetal heart rate baseline of 140/min with moderate variability
Cervical dilation of 4 cm and effacement of 50%
Epigastric pain and nausea
The Correct Answer is D
Epigastric pain and nausea. This is because epigastric pain and nausea are signs of severe preeclampsia that indicate liver involvement and possible hepatic rupture.
This is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention to prevent maternal and fetal complications.
Choice A is wrong because contractions lasting 90 seconds and occurring every 2 minutes are normal during labor induction with oxytocin and do not indicate severe preeclampsia.
Choice B is wrong because fetal heart rate baseline of 140/min with moderate variability is a reassuring sign of fetal well-being and does not indicate severe preeclampsia.
Choice C is wrong because cervical dilation of 4 cm and effacement of 50% are normal findings during labor induction and do not indicate severe preeclampsia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Turn the client to the side.This is because turning the client to the side will prevent aspiration of secretions or vomitus and maintain a patent airway during a seizure.
This is the most important and immediate action to take for a client with eclampsia who is having a tonic-clonic seizure.
Choice A is wrong because administering oxygen via face mask is not the first priority and may not be feasible during a seizure.Oxygen therapy may be indicated after the seizure to improve oxygenation and fetal well-being.
Choice C is wrong because inserting an oral airway is contraindicated during a seizure as it may cause injury to the oral mucosa or trigger a gag reflex.An oral airway may be used after the seizure if the client is unconscious and has a compromised airway.
Choice D is wrong because giving a loading dose of magnesium sulfate is not the first action to take, although it is an important intervention to prevent further seizures and lower blood pressure in eclampsia.Magnesium sulfate should be administered intravenously after securing the airway and ensuring adequate ventilation.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Headache that does not respond to analgesics.This is a possible sign of postpartum pre-eclampsia, a rare condition that occurs when a woman has high blood pressure and excess protein in her urine soon after childbirth.Postpartum pre-eclampsia can cause seizures and other serious complications if not treated.
Choice B is wrong because breast engorgement and tenderness are normal symptoms of breastfeeding and do not indicate postpartum pre-eclampsia.
Choice C is wrong because lochia rubra with small clots is a normal discharge of blood and tissue from the uterus after delivery and does not indicate postpartum pre-eclampsia.
Choice D is wrong because perineal pain and swelling are common after vaginal delivery and do not indicate postpartum pre-eclampsia.
Normal ranges for blood pressure are below 120/80 mm Hg and for protein in urine are below 150 mg/day.
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