A nurse is reviewing medication prescriptions for a client. For which of the following entries on the client's medication administration record should the nurse request clarification?
Simvastatin 40 mg PO at bedtime
Morphine 4 mg IV every 4 hr PRN for pain
Levothyroxine 100 mcg PO every morning
Acetaminophen 500 mg every 4 hr PRN for fever
The Correct Answer is B
A. Simvastatin 40 mg PO at bedtime: This prescription is clear and specifies the medication (Simvastatin), the dose (40 mg), route (PO – oral), and timing (at bedtime). There is no need for clarification.
B. Morphine 4 mg IV every 4 hr PRN for pain: The need for clarification arises here because "PRN" (pro re nata) means "as needed," and prescribing an IV medication on an as-needed basis might need further clarification regarding the specific indications and circumstances for administering the medication.
C. Levothyroxine 100 mcg PO every morning: This prescription is clear and specifies the medication (Levothyroxine), the dose (100 mcg), route (PO – oral), and timing (every morning). There is no need for clarification.
D. Acetaminophen 500 mg every 4 hr PRN for fever: Similar to option B, there might be a need for clarification regarding the specific indications and circumstances for administering acetaminophen on an as-needed basis. However, in many cases, PRN for fever is reasonable, so it may not be as critical as in the case of an IV pain medication.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A.PT (Prothrombin Time) 11 seconds: The prothrombin time measures the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. A PT of 11 seconds is within the normal range, and it indicates that the extrinsic clotting pathway is functioning appropriately. There is no need to report this value.
B. APTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time) 50 seconds: The APTT measures the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. A value of 50 seconds is prolonged and may suggest that the client is receiving an effective anticoagulant dose. However, the APTT target range can vary based on the specific therapeutic goal and the heparin protocol in use. It's essential to follow the healthcare provider's guidance on the target APTT range.
C. Hematocrit 456: The normal range for hematocrit is usually expressed as a percentage. A value of 456 is outside the normal range and likely represents an error or a misinterpretation. The nurse should verify this value, as an extremely high hematocrit could be indicative of an issue such as dehydration or an analytical error.
D. Platelets 300,000/mm²: A platelet count of 300,000/mm² is within the normal range. There is no need to report this value as it suggests a normal platelet count.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Orthostatic hypotension:
Orthostatic hypotension is not a common adverse effect of pioglitazone. This condition is more associated with medications that affect blood pressure or volume.
B. Tinnitus:
Tinnitus (ringing in the ears) is not typically associated with pioglitazone. Adverse effects of pioglitazone are more related to its impact on glucose metabolism and other metabolic processes.
C. Fluid retention:
This is the correct answer. Fluid retention is a known adverse effect of pioglitazone. It can lead to edema, weight gain, and, in some cases, exacerbation of heart failure. Monitoring for signs of fluid retention is important during treatment with pioglitazone.
D. Insomnia:
Insomnia is not a common adverse effect of pioglitazone. Adverse effects are more related to metabolic processes, and sleep disturbances are not typically associated with this medication.
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