A nurse is monitoring the laboratory values of a client who is receiving heparin. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the provider?
PT 11 seconds
APTT 50 seconds
Hematocrit 456
Platelets 300,000/mm²
The Correct Answer is C
A.PT (Prothrombin Time) 11 seconds: The prothrombin time measures the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. A PT of 11 seconds is within the normal range, and it indicates that the extrinsic clotting pathway is functioning appropriately. There is no need to report this value.
B. APTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time) 50 seconds: The APTT measures the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. A value of 50 seconds is prolonged and may suggest that the client is receiving an effective anticoagulant dose. However, the APTT target range can vary based on the specific therapeutic goal and the heparin protocol in use. It's essential to follow the healthcare provider's guidance on the target APTT range.
C. Hematocrit 456: The normal range for hematocrit is usually expressed as a percentage. A value of 456 is outside the normal range and likely represents an error or a misinterpretation. The nurse should verify this value, as an extremely high hematocrit could be indicative of an issue such as dehydration or an analytical error.
D. Platelets 300,000/mm²: A platelet count of 300,000/mm² is within the normal range. There is no need to report this value as it suggests a normal platelet count.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Bone loss:
This is the correct answer. Long-term use of corticosteroids, such as prednisone, is associated with an increased risk of osteoporosis and bone loss. This effect is particularly significant in older adults.
B. Hypoglycemia:
Prednisone is more likely to cause hyperglycemia (high blood sugar) rather than hypoglycemia. It can lead to insulin resistance and impaired glucose metabolism.
C. Liver toxicity:
Liver toxicity is not a common adverse effect of prednisone. Prednisone is metabolized in the liver, but significant liver toxicity is not a typical concern with its use.
D. Hemolytic anemia:
Hemolytic anemia is not a common adverse effect of prednisone. Corticosteroids can affect the immune system, but hemolytic anemia is not a typical manifestation.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Insulin glargine:
Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin used to control blood sugar levels in people with diabetes. However, it is typically not the first-line choice for a client with a new diagnosis of metabolic syndrome and an HbA1c of 6.
B. Regular insulin:
Regular insulin is a short-acting insulin used to control blood sugar levels, but it is not typically the first choice for initial management of metabolic syndrome. It may be considered in certain situations, but other options are often explored first.
C. Exenatide:
Exenatide is a medication that belongs to the class of incretin mimetics and is used to improve blood sugar control. However, it may not be the first choice for initial treatment.
D. Metformin:
This is the correct answer. Metformin is a first-line medication for the treatment of type 2 diabetes and is commonly used to manage metabolic syndrome. It helps improve insulin sensitivity and reduce glucose production by the liver.
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