A nurse is monitoring the laboratory values of a client who is receiving heparin. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the provider?
PT 11 seconds
APTT 50 seconds
Hematocrit 456
Platelets 300,000/mm²
The Correct Answer is C
A.PT (Prothrombin Time) 11 seconds: The prothrombin time measures the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. A PT of 11 seconds is within the normal range, and it indicates that the extrinsic clotting pathway is functioning appropriately. There is no need to report this value.
B. APTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time) 50 seconds: The APTT measures the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. A value of 50 seconds is prolonged and may suggest that the client is receiving an effective anticoagulant dose. However, the APTT target range can vary based on the specific therapeutic goal and the heparin protocol in use. It's essential to follow the healthcare provider's guidance on the target APTT range.
C. Hematocrit 456: The normal range for hematocrit is usually expressed as a percentage. A value of 456 is outside the normal range and likely represents an error or a misinterpretation. The nurse should verify this value, as an extremely high hematocrit could be indicative of an issue such as dehydration or an analytical error.
D. Platelets 300,000/mm²: A platelet count of 300,000/mm² is within the normal range. There is no need to report this value as it suggests a normal platelet count.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Withhold the medication: An INR of 2.5 is generally within the therapeutic range for many conditions, including atrial fibrillation. Withholding the medication might lead to a decreased INR, potentially increasing the risk of clotting.
B. Decrease the dose of the medication: If the INR is above the therapeutic range (usually 2.0-3.0 for atrial fibrillation), the provider might consider decreasing the dose. However, an INR of 2.5 is within the typical therapeutic range, so a decrease in dose might not be warranted.
C. Increase the dose of the medication: An INR of 2.5 is generally within the therapeutic range for many conditions. Increasing the dose in this situation could elevate the INR further, potentially leading to an increased risk of bleeding.
D. Administer the current dose of the medication: Since the INR is within the therapeutic range, the nurse should expect the provider to maintain the current dose of warfarin. Adjustments to the dose might be considered if the INR deviates significantly from the target range.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Obtain a prescription for an alternative antibiotic:
Clindamycin is generally safe for penicillin-allergic clients there is no need for an alternative antibiotic.
B. Administer the clindamycin using a desensitization schedule:
Using a desensitization schedule is a specialized procedure typically reserved for certain situations and performed in a controlled environment. It is not a standard approach for administering antibiotics, and in this case, obtaining an alternative antibiotic is a more appropriate and straightforward solution.
C. Premedicate the client with epinephrine before administering the antibiotic:
Premedicating with epinephrine is not a routine practice for preventing allergic reactions to antibiotics. While epinephrine may be used in severe allergic reactions, it's not a preemptive measure in this context. It's important to address the underlying issue by avoiding the allergen (penicillin class) and using an alternative antibiotic.
D. Give the client the prescribed dose of the clindamycin:
Clindamycin is generally safe for penicillin-allergic clients since it belongs to the lincosamide class and does not share the beta-lactam ring structure responsible for allergic reactions to penicillins.
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