A nurse is monitoring the laboratory values of a client who is receiving heparin. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the provider?
PT 11 seconds
APTT 50 seconds
Hematocrit 456
Platelets 300,000/mm²
The Correct Answer is C
A.PT (Prothrombin Time) 11 seconds: The prothrombin time measures the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. A PT of 11 seconds is within the normal range, and it indicates that the extrinsic clotting pathway is functioning appropriately. There is no need to report this value.
B. APTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time) 50 seconds: The APTT measures the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. A value of 50 seconds is prolonged and may suggest that the client is receiving an effective anticoagulant dose. However, the APTT target range can vary based on the specific therapeutic goal and the heparin protocol in use. It's essential to follow the healthcare provider's guidance on the target APTT range.
C. Hematocrit 456: The normal range for hematocrit is usually expressed as a percentage. A value of 456 is outside the normal range and likely represents an error or a misinterpretation. The nurse should verify this value, as an extremely high hematocrit could be indicative of an issue such as dehydration or an analytical error.
D. Platelets 300,000/mm²: A platelet count of 300,000/mm² is within the normal range. There is no need to report this value as it suggests a normal platelet count.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. "You should take this medication on an empty stomach:"
Bumetanide can be taken with or without food. It is not necessary to take it on an empty stomach.
B. "You should monitor for hearing difficulties:"
This is the correct answer. Loop diuretics, including bumetanide, are associated with ototoxicity, which can lead to hearing difficulties or hearing loss. Clients should be instructed to report any changes in hearing.
C. "You should decrease your intake of foods high in potassium:"
Bumetanide can cause potassium loss, but instructing the client to decrease potassium intake may not be appropriate without knowing the client's specific potassium levels. Monitoring potassium levels and adjusting the diet or prescribing supplements as needed would be a more individualized approach.
D. "You should take the medication at bedtime:"
Bumetanide is often prescribed in the morning to avoid disrupting sleep with increased urination during the night. Taking it at bedtime is not a typical recommendation.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Thready pulse:
A thready pulse is more indicative of fluid volume deficit or inadequate cardiac output, not fluid volume excess.
B. Decreased bowel sounds:
Decreased bowel sounds are not a specific sign of fluid volume excess. They may be associated with various gastrointestinal issues but are not directly related to fluid volume status.
C. Bilateral muscle weakness:
Bilateral muscle weakness is not a specific manifestation of fluid volume excess. It may be associated with electrolyte imbalances or other neuromuscular issues.
D. Distended neck veins:
This is the correct answer. Distended neck veins are a classic sign of fluid volume excess or overload. Increased venous pressure from excess fluid can lead to distension of the jugular veins in the neck. This finding is often seen in conditions such as heart failure or renal failure where there is an inability to adequately excrete or distribute fluids.
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