A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is taking warfarin. Which of the following laboratory tests determines if the dose of medication is within the recommended target range?
Bleeding time
Factor VIII
aPTT
INR
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Bleeding time assesses platelet function, not warfarin’s anticoagulant effect. Warfarin inhibits vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, unrelated to platelets. Monitoring bleeding time does not reflect therapeutic anticoagulation levels, making it irrelevant for adjusting warfarin doses to prevent thrombosis or bleeding.
Choice B reason: Factor VIII, deficient in hemophilia A, is not affected by warfarin, which targets vitamin K-dependent factors (II, VII, IX, X). Measuring Factor VIII does not indicate warfarin’s efficacy, as it is unrelated to the drug’s mechanism, making it unsuitable for dose monitoring.
Choice C reason: aPTT monitors heparin’s effect on the intrinsic clotting pathway, not warfarin’s action on vitamin K-dependent factors. Warfarin requires INR for therapeutic monitoring, as aPTT is insensitive to its effects, making it inappropriate for assessing warfarin’s anticoagulation range in patients.
Choice D reason: INR standardizes prothrombin time, measuring warfarin’s effect on vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. It ensures therapeutic anticoagulation (e.g., INR 2-3), preventing thrombosis or bleeding. INR is the gold standard for warfarin monitoring, guiding dose adjustments for safe and effective therapy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Absence seizures lack an aura, unlike focal seizures. They involve brief, sudden lapses in consciousness due to generalized cortical discharges, without premonitory symptoms, making this incorrect for educating parents about the characteristics of absence seizures in children.
Choice B reason: Absence seizures last 5-20 seconds, not 30-60 seconds. These brief staring spells are caused by spike-wave discharges on EEG. Prolonged duration suggests other seizure types, making this inaccurate for teaching parents about absence seizure presentation and duration.
Choice C reason: Absence seizures are managed with anticonvulsants like ethosuximide, not surgery. Surgical intervention is for refractory focal seizures, not generalized absence seizures, which respond to medication. This is incorrect for educating parents about treatment options for absence seizures.
Choice D reason: Absence seizures cause a daydreaming appearance, with staring and brief unresponsiveness due to synchronized cortical discharges. This hallmark symptom, lasting seconds, is critical for parents to recognize, aiding identification and management of absence seizures in school settings.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Disulfiram is an oral medication, not injectable, used to deter alcohol consumption by causing adverse reactions. Monthly injections apply to drugs like naltrexone, not disulfiram, which requires daily oral dosing to maintain its deterrent effect in alcohol use disorder treatment.
Choice B reason: Taking disulfiram before quitting alcohol is incorrect, as it is started post-abstinence to prevent relapse. Disulfiram inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase, causing acetaldehyde buildup if alcohol is consumed, making it effective only in alcohol-free clients to deter drinking.
Choice C reason: Avoiding over-the-counter medications with alcohol is correct, as disulfiram causes severe reactions (nausea, flushing) with alcohol ingestion, including from medications like cough syrups. This reflects understanding of disulfiram’s mechanism, ensuring safety by preventing unintended alcohol exposure.
Choice D reason: Continuing disulfiram for 5 years is not standard, as duration varies per treatment plan. Disulfiram supports early abstinence, not fixed long-term use. This statement misrepresents its role, as therapy length depends on individual recovery needs, not a predetermined timeframe.
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