A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving morphine intravenously. Which of the following findings indicates the client is experiencing morphine toxicity?
Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes
Fluid retention
Prolonged QT interval
Bradypnea
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes are not linked to morphine toxicity. Morphine, an opioid, depresses the central nervous system, reducing reflexes. Hyperactive reflexes suggest neurological or stimulant effects, not opioid overdose, which primarily causes respiratory and consciousness depression in affected clients.
Choice B reason: Fluid retention is not a primary sign of morphine toxicity. Morphine may cause urinary retention via sphincter tone increase, but fluid overload is unrelated. Toxicity manifests as respiratory depression or sedation, driven by mu-opioid receptor overstimulation, not fluid balance alterations.
Choice C reason: Prolonged QT interval is associated with medications like antiarrhythmics, not morphine. Morphine toxicity primarily causes respiratory depression and sedation via central nervous system effects. Cardiac effects are rare, and QT prolongation is not a hallmark of opioid overdose in clinical settings.
Choice D reason: Bradypnea indicates morphine toxicity, as opioids depress the brainstem’s respiratory center via mu-receptor overstimulation. This slows breathing, risking hypoxia and respiratory arrest, a life-threatening complication requiring immediate intervention like naloxone to reverse opioid effects and restore normal respiratory function.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: A WBC count of 1,300/mm³ indicates severe leukopenia, a contraindication for clozapine due to its risk of agranulocytosis. Low white cells increase infection risk, requiring immediate discontinuation or monitoring per FDA guidelines, making this the critical finding to identify.
Choice B reason: Hemoglobin of 16 g/dL is within normal range (14-18 g/dL) and does not contraindicate clozapine use. Normal hemoglobin supports adequate oxygen transport, so this finding is unremarkable and incorrect for identifying a contraindication.
Choice C reason: Fasting blood glucose of 124 mg/dL indicates mild elevation but is not a contraindication for clozapine, which may worsen glucose control. Monitoring is needed, but this level does not preclude use, making it incorrect.
Choice D reason: Platelet count of 200,000/mm³ is normal (150,000-450,000/mm³) and does not contraindicate clozapine. Normal platelets ensure proper clotting, so this finding is not a concern for clozapine administration, making it incorrect.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Monitoring for hypoglycemia is not a priority in bacterial meningitis, as it is not a common complication. The focus is on neurological risks like seizures or increased intracranial pressure due to inflammation. This action diverts attention from critical interventions, making it inappropriate for managing meningitis.
Choice B reason: Implementing seizure precautions is essential for bacterial meningitis, as inflammation of the meninges can irritate the brain, increasing seizure risk. Precautions like padded bed rails and anticonvulsant readiness ensure safety and prompt response, aligning with evidence-based care for this condition, making it the correct action.
Choice C reason: Placing the client in high-Fowler’s position may increase discomfort or exacerbate intracranial pressure in bacterial meningitis. A 30-degree head elevation is preferred to reduce pressure while maintaining comfort. This position is not optimal, making it an incorrect choice for this condition.
Choice D reason: Administering antiviral medications is inappropriate, as bacterial meningitis requires antibiotics, not antivirals, which target viral infections. Misusing antivirals delays effective treatment and worsens outcomes, making this action incorrect and potentially harmful for managing bacterial meningitis.
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