A nurse is witnessing a surgeon obtain informed consent from a client. Which of the following legal requirements is met by this action?
The client knows they may no longer refuse the procedure.
The nurse explained the surgical procedure in detail.
The nurse explained the risks and benefits of the surgery.
The client agreed to the procedure voluntarily.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Informed consent does not prevent a client from refusing the procedure, as they retain the right to withdraw consent at any time before or during the process. This statement is incorrect, as it misrepresents the client’s autonomy and legal rights under informed consent principles.
Choice B reason: The nurse’s role in witnessing consent is to verify the client’s voluntary agreement, not to explain the procedure in detail. The surgeon or provider is responsible for detailed explanations, making this action outside the nurse’s scope in this context and incorrect.
Choice C reason: Explaining risks and benefits is the surgeon’s responsibility, not the nurse’s when witnessing consent. The nurse ensures the client understands and agrees voluntarily but does not provide the explanation, making this an incorrect description of the nurse’s role in the process.
Choice D reason: The client’s voluntary agreement is a core legal requirement of informed consent, which the nurse verifies as a witness. This ensures the client understands the procedure, risks, and benefits and consents without coercion, aligning with ethical and legal standards, making it correct.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Bilirubin assesses liver function, not kidneys. Cyclosporine’s nephrotoxicity affects glomerular filtration, not heme metabolism. Monitoring bilirubin is irrelevant for renal function in transplant clients, as it reflects hepatic or hemolytic processes, not kidney health or drug toxicity.
Choice B reason: Alkaline phosphatase evaluates liver or bone health, not kidneys. Cyclosporine may cause hepatotoxicity, but renal monitoring is critical due to its nephrotoxic potential. Alkaline phosphatase does not reflect glomerular or tubular function, making it unsuitable for assessing renal impact.
Choice C reason: Amylase measures pancreatic function, not kidneys. Cyclosporine’s nephrotoxicity affects renal filtration, not pancreatic enzymes. Monitoring amylase is irrelevant for kidney transplant clients, as it does not indicate renal impairment or cyclosporine’s toxic effects on kidney function.
Choice D reason: Creatinine is a key renal function marker, reflecting glomerular filtration rate. Cyclosporine’s nephrotoxicity elevates creatinine, indicating kidney damage. Monitoring it with BUN ensures early detection of renal impairment, guiding dose adjustments to prevent further injury in transplant clients.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
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A. Maternal fever Maternal fever typically causes fetal tachycardia (elevated baseline >160/min), not bradycardia. Fever increases maternal metabolic rate and fetal heart rate.
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B. Chorioamnionitis This intrauterine infection also leads to fetal tachycardia, due to inflammatory stress and maternal fever. It is not a cause of bradycardia.
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C. Maternal hypoglycemia ✅ Low maternal glucose levels can reduce fetal energy supply and oxygenation, leading to fetal bradycardia (baseline <110/min). This is a recognized cause of sustained bradycardia.
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D. Fetal anemia Fetal anemia usually results in tachycardia as the fetus compensates for reduced oxygen‑carrying capacity by increasing heart rate. It does not cause bradycardia.
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