A nurse is caring for a newly admitted client who has bacterial meningitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Monitor the client for hypoglycemia.

Implement seizure precautions.

Place the client in high-Fowler’s position.

Administer antiviral medications.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A reason: Monitoring for hypoglycemia is not a priority in bacterial meningitis, as it is not a common complication. The focus is on neurological risks like seizures or increased intracranial pressure due to inflammation. This action diverts attention from critical interventions, making it inappropriate for managing meningitis.
Choice B reason: Implementing seizure precautions is essential for bacterial meningitis, as inflammation of the meninges can irritate the brain, increasing seizure risk. Precautions like padded bed rails and anticonvulsant readiness ensure safety and prompt response, aligning with evidence-based care for this condition, making it the correct action.
Choice C reason: Placing the client in high-Fowler’s position may increase discomfort or exacerbate intracranial pressure in bacterial meningitis. A 30-degree head elevation is preferred to reduce pressure while maintaining comfort. This position is not optimal, making it an incorrect choice for this condition.
Choice D reason: Administering antiviral medications is inappropriate, as bacterial meningitis requires antibiotics, not antivirals, which target viral infections. Misusing antivirals delays effective treatment and worsens outcomes, making this action incorrect and potentially harmful for managing bacterial meningitis.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: A client with a sealed radiation implant requires strict precautions and monitoring to prevent radiation exposure to others. Early discharge is unsafe due to ongoing treatment needs, so this client is not suitable, making this incorrect.
Choice B reason: A COPD client with a respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min indicates potential instability, requiring monitoring for exacerbation. Early discharge risks decompensation without ensured stability, so this client is not appropriate, making this incorrect.
Choice C reason: A client receiving heparin for DVT needs continuous anticoagulation and monitoring to prevent embolism. Discharging early risks clotting complications, so this client requires ongoing hospital care, making this incorrect for early discharge.
Choice D reason: A client 1 day post-cholecystectomy, if stable, is often ready for discharge, as this surgery is routine with quick recovery. Freeing this bed supports disaster response, aligning with triage principles, making this the correct choice.

A. A client who has decreased serotonin levels. B. A client who has decreased cortisol levels. C. A client who has elevated dopamine levels. D. A client who has elevated thyroid levels.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: Decreased serotonin levels are linked to depression, as serotonin regulates mood in the brain’s limbic system. Antidepressants like SSRIs increase serotonin, alleviating low mood and anhedonia, making this client a prime candidate for therapy to address neurochemical imbalances in depression.
Choice B reason: Decreased cortisol is not directly tied to depression requiring antidepressants. Cortisol dysregulation may occur in stress disorders, but antidepressants target serotonin or norepinephrine, not adrenal function, making this client less suitable for antidepressant therapy based on this imbalance.
Choice C reason: Elevated dopamine is linked to schizophrenia or mania, not depression. Antidepressants target serotonin or norepinephrine, not dopamine. This client may need antipsychotics or mood stabilizers, not antidepressants, as dopamine excess does not indicate depressive pathology requiring such therapy.
Choice D reason: Elevated thyroid levels suggest hyperthyroidism, mimicking anxiety, not depression. Antidepressants are not indicated, as treatment targets thyroid function. Depression may coexist, but thyroid correction is prioritized, making this client unsuitable for primary antidepressant therapy based on this finding.

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A nurse is caring for a newly admitted client who has bacterial meningitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Nursing Test Bank

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