A nurse is caring for a newly admitted client who has bacterial meningitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Monitor the client for hypoglycemia.

Implement seizure precautions.

Place the client in high-Fowler’s position.

Administer antiviral medications.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A reason: Monitoring for hypoglycemia is not a priority in bacterial meningitis, as it is not a common complication. The focus is on neurological risks like seizures or increased intracranial pressure due to inflammation. This action diverts attention from critical interventions, making it inappropriate for managing meningitis.
Choice B reason: Implementing seizure precautions is essential for bacterial meningitis, as inflammation of the meninges can irritate the brain, increasing seizure risk. Precautions like padded bed rails and anticonvulsant readiness ensure safety and prompt response, aligning with evidence-based care for this condition, making it the correct action.
Choice C reason: Placing the client in high-Fowler’s position may increase discomfort or exacerbate intracranial pressure in bacterial meningitis. A 30-degree head elevation is preferred to reduce pressure while maintaining comfort. This position is not optimal, making it an incorrect choice for this condition.
Choice D reason: Administering antiviral medications is inappropriate, as bacterial meningitis requires antibiotics, not antivirals, which target viral infections. Misusing antivirals delays effective treatment and worsens outcomes, making this action incorrect and potentially harmful for managing bacterial meningitis.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Disulfiram is an oral medication, not injectable, used to deter alcohol consumption by causing adverse reactions. Monthly injections apply to drugs like naltrexone, not disulfiram, which requires daily oral dosing to maintain its deterrent effect in alcohol use disorder treatment.
Choice B reason: Taking disulfiram before quitting alcohol is incorrect, as it is started post-abstinence to prevent relapse. Disulfiram inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase, causing acetaldehyde buildup if alcohol is consumed, making it effective only in alcohol-free clients to deter drinking.
Choice C reason: Avoiding over-the-counter medications with alcohol is correct, as disulfiram causes severe reactions (nausea, flushing) with alcohol ingestion, including from medications like cough syrups. This reflects understanding of disulfiram’s mechanism, ensuring safety by preventing unintended alcohol exposure.
Choice D reason: Continuing disulfiram for 5 years is not standard, as duration varies per treatment plan. Disulfiram supports early abstinence, not fixed long-term use. This statement misrepresents its role, as therapy length depends on individual recovery needs, not a predetermined timeframe.

A. Anuria B. Edema C. Hyperkalemia D. Hypocalcemia E. Metabolic acidosis

Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D","E"]

Explanation

Choice A reason: Anuria, minimal or no urine output, is expected in end-stage kidney disease (ESKD) due to nephron loss, reducing glomerular filtration rate. This causes fluid and toxin buildup, requiring dialysis to manage fluid balance and prevent complications like uremia in ESKD clients.
Choice B reason: Edema results from impaired sodium and water excretion in ESKD, causing fluid overload. Reduced filtration leads to volume retention, manifesting as peripheral or pulmonary edema, increasing cardiovascular strain and necessitating diuretics or dialysis to control fluid status effectively.
Choice C reason: Hyperkalemia occurs in ESKD, as failing kidneys cannot excrete potassium, elevating serum levels. This risks cardiac arrhythmias due to disrupted membrane potentials. Dietary restrictions or dialysis are needed to manage potassium, preventing life-threatening complications in end-stage renal failure.
Choice D reason: Hypocalcemia in ESKD stems from impaired vitamin D activation and phosphate retention, binding calcium. This disrupts bone mineralization and neuromuscular function, causing tetany or fractures. Calcium supplementation and dialysis correct this imbalance, addressing renal failure’s metabolic consequences.
Choice E reason: Metabolic acidosis in ESKD results from impaired hydrogen ion excretion and bicarbonate reabsorption. This lowers blood pH, causing fatigue and bone demineralization. Dialysis or bicarbonate therapy corrects acid-base imbalances, addressing the kidneys’ failure to maintain homeostasis in end-stage disease.

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A nurse is caring for a newly admitted client who has bacterial meningitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is providing medication teaching about disulfiram for a client who has alcohol use disorder. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D","E"]

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