A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is performing medication reconciliation for a newly admitted client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Compare the medication label to the provider’s prescription on three occasions before administration.
Compare the client’s list of home medications to the admission prescriptions written for the client.
Administer medications to treat a condition to the actual prescriptions.
Ensure the medication is administered within 3 hours of the scheduled time.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Comparing the medication label to the provider’s prescription three times is a safety step during administration, not reconciliation. Reconciliation verifies the client’s home medications against new orders to prevent errors like omissions or duplications. This action occurs post-reconciliation, focusing on administration accuracy, not the initial verification of the medication list.
Choice B reason: Medication reconciliation involves comparing the client’s home medication list to admission prescriptions to ensure continuity and accuracy. This process identifies discrepancies, such as missed medications or incorrect doses, preventing adverse drug events. It requires verifying with the client or family and cross-checking provider orders, making it the cornerstone of safe transitions in care settings.
Choice C reason: Administering medications to treat a condition to the actual prescriptions is unclear and not part of reconciliation. Reconciliation focuses on verifying and documenting medications, not administering them. This option does not align with the systematic process of ensuring all medications are correctly prescribed upon admission, making it incorrect.
Choice D reason: Ensuring administration within 3 hours of the scheduled time relates to medication administration protocols, not reconciliation. Reconciliation verifies the accuracy of the medication list before administration. This step is about timing, not the verification process critical to preventing errors during care transitions, rendering it irrelevant to the task.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Bilirubin assesses liver function, not kidneys. Cyclosporine’s nephrotoxicity affects glomerular filtration, not heme metabolism. Monitoring bilirubin is irrelevant for renal function in transplant clients, as it reflects hepatic or hemolytic processes, not kidney health or drug toxicity.
Choice B reason: Alkaline phosphatase evaluates liver or bone health, not kidneys. Cyclosporine may cause hepatotoxicity, but renal monitoring is critical due to its nephrotoxic potential. Alkaline phosphatase does not reflect glomerular or tubular function, making it unsuitable for assessing renal impact.
Choice C reason: Amylase measures pancreatic function, not kidneys. Cyclosporine’s nephrotoxicity affects renal filtration, not pancreatic enzymes. Monitoring amylase is irrelevant for kidney transplant clients, as it does not indicate renal impairment or cyclosporine’s toxic effects on kidney function.
Choice D reason: Creatinine is a key renal function marker, reflecting glomerular filtration rate. Cyclosporine’s nephrotoxicity elevates creatinine, indicating kidney damage. Monitoring it with BUN ensures early detection of renal impairment, guiding dose adjustments to prevent further injury in transplant clients.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: High-osmolarity formulas may cause diarrhea but are not directly linked to aspiration risk. Aspiration results from improper positioning or reflux, not formula osmolarity, so this factor is less relevant, making it incorrect for identifying aspiration risk in enteral feedings.
Choice B reason: Sitting in high-Fowler’s position (60-90 degrees) reduces aspiration risk by promoting gastric emptying and preventing reflux during enteral feedings. This is a protective measure, not a risk factor, making it incorrect for this scenario.
Choice C reason: A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial is within acceptable limits (<100-200 mL, per facility protocol) and does not indicate high aspiration risk. Elevated residuals may suggest delayed emptying, but this value is normal, making it incorrect.
Choice D reason: A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease increases aspiration risk, as reflux can allow gastric contents to enter the airway during enteral feedings. This condition compromises esophageal sphincter function, making it a significant risk factor and the correct choice.
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